KAVALIPOST

Monday 15 April 2013

INDIA POST, TCS TO SIGN RS 1,400 CR IT DEAL ON MONDAY

NEW DELHI: IT major TCS has bagged the Rs 1,400-crore project of India Post for computerising counter operations and the two parties will sign a pact on Monday, a top government official has said.
The project is divided into two parts --two years for implementation and five years of maintenance.



Postal Assistant Exam Model Cum Practice Paper for Direct Recruitment-2013

This model paper prepared and compiled by Akula. Praveen Kumar, SPM, Papannapet Sub Office-502 303, Medak Division, Andhra Pradesh(9849636361,8019549939)

Disclaimer:All questions/Information provided in this post are Compiled by A. Praveen Kumar for in good faith of Postal Assistant exam aspirants. The types of questions, number of questions and standard of questions may be vary in actual examination. This is my predictions only. Author of blog does not accepts any responsibility in relation to the accuracy, completeness, usefulness or otherwise, of the contents. Utmost care has been taken to prepare the model cum practice paper as per syllabus prescribed by India Post.

This is a practice paper only.

Previously the Department filtered the aspirants on the basis of merit and allowed 1:10 ratio for the examination. Hence the previous pattern and type of exam and standard of examination was easy. But this year onwards the selection process was changed and heavy competition is there for selection of Postal Assistant. The Examiner will set tough standard / medium hard level to test candidate         grasp of basic concepts of principles, Knowledge, application level, ability to solve the complex problems.

Best of luck to all Postal Assistant Exam Aspirants.

                                MODEL CUM PRACTICE PAPER

Marks: 100                                             Duration: 2 hours

Instructions to Candidates

1. Answer All the Questions
2. Each question Carries “1” Mark
3. Round off the appropriate choice in OMR sheet

                                                                   PART-A
          (General Knowledge & Current Affairs) 
      
1. Scientist in the month of December revealed a planet that could support life, orbits a Sun-like star near the Earth. What is the name of the star around which this planet was found orbiting?

1. Tau Ceti                 2. Sirius                      3. Ophiuchi               4.Gliese 33

2.Park Guen –hye has beenelected as the first women President of 

1. Thailand                2.Vietnam                  3. South Korea          4.Maurritius

3. The term “Chucker” is used in which sports? 

1.Football                  2. Horse Racing        3. Wrestling               4. Polo

4. Which of the following fairs is not correct

1. Rangaswamy Cup-Hockey                    2. Rovers Cup- Football
3.Federation Cup-Badminton                    4.Deodhar Trophy-Cricket

5.  Who wrote the Book entitled ‘Ghulamgiri’ ?

1B. R. Ambedkar   2. Narayan Guru    3. Jyotiba Phule     4. M. P. Pillai

6.   How many censuses (including the 2011 census) have been carried out since independence?

1. 05                   2. 06                   3. 07                   4. 08

7. Consider the following

A.  Fundamental Rights  
B. Fundamental Duties  
C. Directive Principles of   State policy

In India the provisions related to “education” have been embodied  in which among the above 

1.  A & B                     2. B & C                      3. A & C           4. A&B&C

8. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time— 

1. 25th Amendment Act                              2. 26th Amendment Act
3. 24th Amendment Act                              4. 27th Amendment Act

9. Who finally approves the draft of Five year plans

1. Parliament and State Legislatures        2.National Development Council
3. Planing Commission                               4. Presiodent

10.  What was main contribution of Jainism to Indian Philosophy?

1. The doctrine of rebirth                            2. The doctrine of Syadvada
3. The doctrine of immortality of soul      4. The doctrine of Brahma is nirguna

11. There is only one edict, in which Ashoka refers himself as king of Magadha. Identify the edict from the following?

 1. The Queens Edict                                    2.Bhabhru Edict 
 3. Rock edict of Mashi                                4. Dhuali Piller Inscription”

12. During the region of  “Krishna Devaraya” which of the following famous temples were built in Vajayanagar empire?

1. Hampi                    2. Hazura                   3. Belugam                            4. Tirumala

13. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to ‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’?

1.Ras Behari Bose                              2.Batukeshwar Datt  
3. Sardar Bhagat Singh                    4. Chandra Shekhar Azad

14. Select the correct chronological order of following reformers of the medieval Bhakti movements by using code given below

A. Namdeva  B. Vallabhacharya  C. Ramananda    D. Kabir

1. A, B,C,D                 2. B,C,D,A                    3. C,D,A,B                4. D,A,B, C

15.  When did Gandhiji go to fast unto death for the first time ?

1. At the time of Communal award       2. At the time of riots in Calcutta
3. At the time of riots in Delhi             4. At the time of Jallianwala Bagh tragedy

16. Green flames given out by the burning of firework is due to the presence of—

1. Sodium                  2.Barium                    3.Potassium              4.Calcium

17. A colour blind Person has difficulty in distinguishing between which colours?

1. Black & Blue       2. Green & Violet       3. White & Yellow      4. Green & Red

18. “Minamata” disease is caused by

1. Automobile exhausts containing lead
2. Water Pollution from Sevage
3. Industrial wastes having mercury compounds
4. Wastes from Chemical factories

19. Which one of the following is not a function of Protein?

1. Building up of tissues                 2. Catalysing some reactions
3. Growth of bones                           4. Repair of torn tissues

20. Mother milk lacks of   

a. Vitamin C   b. Protin   c. Sodium   d. Iron

1.  a & c                       2. b& c                         3. a & d                      4. b & d

21. The term that best describes the shape of earth is ?

1. Eclipse                    2. Geoid                    3. Globe                      4. Shphere

22. Where on the Earth is located “Sirohi Point”?

1. North Pole              2. Indian Ocean         3. Carabbean sea       4. Antartica

23.  The gulf of Kutch is one of the two two regions on west coast of India, identified suitable for Tidal Power Station. Which among the following is the other one?

1. Gulf of Mannar      2. Gulf of  Khamhat     3. Laccadive          4. Konken

 24. The “Hkakabo Razi” which is famous for Hkakabo Razi National Park, is boarder tri-point between which of the following countries

1. India- China- Nepal                       2. India – Bhutan- China
3. India- Bangladesh- Myanmar       4. India- China - Myanmar

25. Which of the following State is highest density of Post Offices in India

1. Uttar Pradesh      2. Andhra Pradesh       3. West Bengal     4. Tamilnadu
                             
                                PART-B
                                             MATHEMATICS

Directions—(Q. 26 to 27) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

26. 196 × 948 ÷ 158 = ?   

1. 1156                       2. 1200                       3. 1188                       4. 1176

27. The Value of ? 
1.  2                             2. 3/2                          3. 4/13                        4. 36/13

28.
(√ 625 / 11 ×14 ×√25 ×11 / √196 ) is equal to

1. 11                           2. 8                              3.6                               4. 5

29. A watch ticks 90 times in 95 seconds and another watch ticks 315 times in 323 sec. If both the watches are started together, how many times will they tick together in the first hour?

1.    51                    2. 61                           3.101                          4.111

30.  Three math classes: X, Y, and Z, take an algebra test. The average score in class X is 83. The average score in class Y is 76.The average score in class Z is 85. The average score of all students in classes X and Y together is 79. The average score of all students in classes Y and Z together is 81.What is the average for all the three classes? 

1. 81                           2. 81.5                        3. 82                           4. 84.5

31. Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper is 9 times as heavy as water. In what ratio should these be mixed to get an alloy 15 times as heavy as water? 

1. 1:5                          2. 2:5                          3. 3:5                          4. 3:2

32. In a mixture 60 liters, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If the this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quantity of water to be further added is:

1. 70 Ltrs                    2. 60Ltrs                     3. 50 ltrs                     4. 40 ltrs

33. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are

1. 42 & 33                  2. 44 & 35                  3. 46 & 38                  4. 45  & 36  

34. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B and B Rs. 5000 more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000, A receives

1. 13200                     2.  14700                      3. 14500                    4. 13600 

35. The area of a rectangle is 460 square metres. If the length is 15% more than the breadth, what is the breadth of the rectangular field?

1. 15 Mtrs                   2. 18 Mtrs                   3. 20 Mtrs                   4. 22 Mtrs

36. A boat running downstream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the same distance upstream, it takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water? 

1. 4 Km/h                   2. 6 Km/h                   3. 8 Km/h                   4. 10Km/h

37. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year:

1. 2018                       2. 2022                       3. 2026                       4. 2024

38. A does half as much work as B and C does half as much work as A and B together. If C alone can finish the work in 40 days, then together all will finish the work in: 

1. 32/3Days               2. 43/3 days               3. 40/3 days               4. 44/3 days

39. Vinod can do a piece of work in 20 days. Sandeep is 25% more efficient than Vinod. The number of days taken by  Sandeep to do the same piece of work is

1. 15 Days                 2.  16 days                 3. 17 days                  4.  14days

40. A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely?

1. 3 hrs 15 min         2.  3 hrs 45 min        3. 4 hrs                       4.  4 hrs 15 min

41. Two trains, each 100 m long, moving in opposite directions, cross each other in 8 seconds. If one is moving twice as fast the other, then the speed of the faster train is:

1. 40 Km/h                 2. 50Km/h                  3.60Km/h                   4.70Km/h

42. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?

1. 240 m                     2. 260m                      3. 280m                      4. 270m

43. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C is. The journey covered by C in 54 minutes will be covered by B in

1. 20 minutes            2. 25 minutes            3. 16 minutes            4. 18minutes

44. By mixing two brands of tea and selling the mixture at the rate of Rs. 177 per kg, a shopkeeper makes a profit of 18%. If to every 2 kg of one brand costing Rs. 200 per kg, 3 kg of the other brand is added, then how much per kg does the other brand cost? 

1.Rs 116.66               2. Rs 125.34              3. Rs  118.69             4. Rs114.17

44. A grocer sells rice at a profit of 10% and uses weights which are 20% less than the market weight. The total gain earned by him will be :

1. 35.2  %                    2.35.7%                      3.37.4%                      4.37.5%

45. If simple interest on a certain sum of money is Rs. 256 and the rate of interest per annum equals the number of years, then the rate of interest is

1. 16%                        2. 18%                        3.20%                         4.22%

46. A sum of money at compound interest amounts to thrice itself in three years. In how many years will it be 9 times itself?

1. 5 Years                  2. 6 Years                  3. 7 Years                  4. 4 Years

47. The compound interest on a sum for 2 years is Rs. 832 and the simple interest on the same sum for the same period is Rs. 800. The difference between the compound and simple interest for 3 years will be 

1. Rs 66.56                2. Rs 64.89                3.98.56                       4.74.57

48. Ten years ago, Visnuvardhan was thrice as old as Harshavardhan was ,but 10 years hence, he will be only twice as old. Find Harshvardhan’s present age

1. 30Years                  2. 35 Years                 3.40 Years                 4.38 Years

49. There is a seller of cigarette and match boxes who sits in the narrow lanes of Medak. He prices the cigarettes at 85 p, but found that there are no takers. So he reduced the price of cigarette and managed to sell all the cigarettes, realising Rs. 77.28 in all. What is the number of cigarettes

1. 49                            2.89                            3. 84                           4. 92

50. The length of a rectangular plot is 20 metres more than its breadth. If the cost of fencing the plot @ 26.50 per metre is Rs. 5300, what is the length of the plot in metres?

1. 40 meters              2.60meters                3. 80meters               4.90meters

                             PART-C

                                                       GENERAL ENGLISH

DIRECTIONS :-( 51-55) Read the following Passage and answer the Questions

The supervisor would have to change this attitude towards people first. The staff under him must be perceived as human beings with feelings and needs. They are not autonomous within complex work machinery. One of the greatest needs of to-days worker is to have a feeling that he is in control of his workplace and not vice versa. The best way is to satisfy this need as far as possible. He must feel first, that his work is meaningful. To do this is supervisor must delegate responsibility and limited authority for the man  to execute his job well. The subordinate must be properly trained to assume responsibility and authority. Once he is ready to assume these he can be made accountable for his job. Very often supervisors assume all responsibility and accountability for fear of losing control of the workplace. This makes workers under  him pawns in a vast chess board. Delegating accountability gives the worker a purpose in life and the need to a do a job well Most important is to sit with each worker and chalk out common objectives and agreed norms  to achieve them . This gives workers a security as to what is expected of them. When he has met his objectives he certainly has a feeling achievement. This feeling of achievement is the greatest motivatior.

51. Responsibility and accountability make a worker

1. Tense and frightened                                          2. shirk his duties
3. Vulnerable before his supervisor                     4. do his job properly

52. Supervisors do not delegate responsibility and authority to their subordinates because

1. Final responsibility is there                  2. Subordinates are not capable enough
3. They can’t trust their subordinates   
4 they are apprehensive losing their hold on the workplace

53. Orientation of subordinates of common objectives and how  to acieve them is 

1. a must        2. not very important     3.not at all necessary              4. Optional

54. A humane attitude on the part of the supervisor  towards his staff is necessary to


1. Keep them happy                                                2. get them to work
3. get the best out of them                                    4.have a congenial atmosphere at workplace

55. The greatest motivator in a workplace is

1. Fulfilment of purpose                                           2. a sense of security
3. a good supervisor                                                4. a good environment
Directions—(Q. 56-57) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

56. MENIAL  

1.Unskilled                2. Tall                           3. Affluent                             4.Sick

57. VICARIOUS

1. Ambitious               2. Not experienced personally   
3. Nostalgic                4. Vindictive
Directions—(Q. 58–59) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

58. PUERILE    

1. Inquisitive             2.matured               3. Impure                     4. Original
           
59.  SOBRIETY    

1. Moderation            2. Drunkenness        3. Dizziness              4. Stupidity
Directions—(Q. 60–63) (i) In this section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (1), (2) and (3) and (4). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error

60. Critics of government policy   /    argue that the new measures introduced    
                    (1)                                                                            (2)

to fight crime are simply papering on the cracks.        /            No error.                     (3)                                                                                        (4)
61. The plans have been under      /     discussion for a year now,                           
                    (1)                                                              (2)

   but no decision has reached.            /          No error.                    (3)                                                              (4)
62. Two newspapers did         /            an very effective hatchet job         
                   (1)                                                               (2)

on the Prime Minister’s achievements.     /         No error.
 
                 (3)                                                                    (4)
63. Your argument was clear       /           to us from the start 
                    (1)                                                             (2)

there’s no need to labour the point.         /        No error.                    (3)                                                             (4)

64. Which of the following is a Simple Sentence? 

1.       I met my friend when I went to the theatre
2.      On my way to the theatre, I met my friend
3.       I went to the theatre and met my friend
4.      While I was in the theatre, I met my friend

65. The following sentence has been transformed into the Passive in four ways. Which transformation is the best? 

They will make him King

1. He will be made King by them.
2. King would be made by them.
3. He was made king by them
4. King will be made by them.

66. In which sentence is the verb in the active voice?

1.       They were detained at the gate
2.      You have made it easy
3.      It has been recently disproved
4.      She was known for her talent in music.

67. In which of the following sentences are all articles used correctly?

1.       This hospital was rated the most advanced with respect to the techniques employed for surgery.

2.      This hospital was rated the most advanced with respect to the techniques employed for the surgery

3.      This hospital was rated a  most advanced with respect to the techniques employed for surgery

4.      This hospital was rated   most advanced with respect to the techniques used for a surgery

68. In which of the following sentences are all Prepositions used correctly? 

1. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed towards frogs.
2. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed for frogs.
3. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed into frogs
4. The tadpoles in the lake have now changed from frogs

69. The cricket match proved to be a big draw. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of idiom / phrase underlined

1.       A keen contest                              2. A huge attraction
3.      A lovely spectacle                         4.  A game without any result

70.  Which of the following is a suitable way to end a letter to a close friend? 

1. Write back soon, will you?
2. An immediate reply will be greatly appreciated
3. Reply by return of post
4. Expecting a favourable reply, I remain

71.    ________you remember to lock the door?

1. Didn’t         2.  Aren’t                    3.  Haven’t                     4.  Doesn’t

72. What part of speech is the underlined word or words in the following sentence?
She floated quietly and lazily around the pool.


1. Noun          2.  Adverb                  3. Preposition                   4 Adjective

73. Mother said to son, “ Do not run so fast” ( Change into indirect speech)

1. Mother wanted son, not to run so fast

2. Mother said son, not to run so fast

3. Mother advised son, not to run so fast

4.Mother ordered son, not to run so fast

74. Having obtained the degree abroad, Harsha returned home. (Choose its correct compound sentence form)

1. The degree was obtained abroad and Harsha returned home

2.Harsha returned home because he obtained the degree abroad

3. Harsha obtained the degree abroad and he returned home

4. Harsha returned home and he obtained the degree abroad

75.  She ______ cakes; there's flour on her hands.

1. has baked     2. Bakes         3. Has been baked           4. Has been baking


                                                    PART-D
 REASONING AND ANALYTICAL ABILITY

76. Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark (?)

1 2 3 2 10 12
2 5 12 10 16 13
1 2 1 ? 10 24

1. 5                                2.11                       3.13                     4.8

77.  Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1. 19                            2. 35                      3. 15                 4. 21

78.  Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.

      A.Wrinkle         B. Wriggle        C. Writhe     D. Wratch        E. Wrath

   1. D,E,A,B,C             2. E,D,B, A,C                 3.D,B,E,A,B             4.E,B,A,C, D

79. In a certain code SAFER is writ­ten as 5@3#2 and RIDE is writ­ten as 2©%#. HowisFEDS writ­ten in that code?  

1.  3#©5.                      2. 3@%5                            3. 3#%5                      4. 3#%2

80.  If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?

1. Potato                    2. Guava                   3.Apple                              4. Banana

81If in a certain code, ‘O’ is written as ‘E’, ‘A’, as ‘C’, ‘M’ as ‘I’, ‘S’ as ‘O’, ‘N’ as ‘P’, ‘E’ as ‘M’, ‘I’ as ‘A’, ‘P’ as ‘N’ and ‘C’ as ‘S’, then how will ‘COMPANIES’ be written in that code?

1. SEIACPAMO                       2. SMINCPAMO
3. SEINCPAMO                       4. SEINCPMIO

82Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a certain way while one i different. Choose the odd one.

1. GWOURV              2. LZKMU                3. SFXPMG                     4. JOEHNP

83. From the positions in original figure ‘A’ and ‘C’ move diagonally to opposite corners and then one side each clockwise and anticlockwise respectively. ‘D’ and ‘B’ move two sides each clockwise and anticlockwise respectively. Where is ‘A’ now?

1. At the North-East corner                      2.At the North-West corner
3 At the South-West corner                     4. At the South-East corner

84.It was 9•35 a.m. in Rakhi’s watch, which kept correct time, when Reena informed her that the last bus left the bus stop at 9•25 a.m. Reena’s watch is 5 minutes fast. The frequency of the bus is every 20 minutes. For how long Rakhi must wait to catch the next bus?

1. 5 minutes         2. 10 minutes            3. 15 minutes                       4. 25 minutes

85Among A, B, P, Q and S, B is immediate next taller than the shortest and Q is taller than P. Which of he following statements (s) is (are) necessary to decide the tallest among them?

(A) P is not as tall as S.
(B) A is third below Q in height
(C) P is second in height above A

1. Only (A) or (B)                                    2. Only (B) or (C)
3 Only (A) or (C)                                    4(A) or (B) or (C)

86.If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?  Ans: C

1. Q - N + M x P            2. P + S x N – Q             3. P - M + N x Q    4.  Q - S % P

 87.  Find out the missing number:-  

4
6
18
2
3
2
3
4
?
6
8
27

1.      6                           2.8                                       3.4                             4.3   

88. Five boys are sitting in a row. Sudhir is sitting next to Prakash but not Tarun. Kumar is sitting next to Ravi who is sitting on the extreme left and Tarun is not sitting next to Kumar. Who are sitting on either side of Sudhir?

1. Prakash & Kumar    2. Prakash &Ravi    3.Tarun & Prakash    4. Prakash alone

89. How many even numbers are there in the following sequence of numbers whiich are immediately followedby an odd number as well as immediately preceded by an even number?  

8  6  7  6  8  9  3  2  7  5  3  4  2  2  3  5  5  2  2  8  1  1  9

 1. One                               2. Three                     3. Five                              4. None of these.

90.Which one will replace the question mark ? 


1.64                                 2.144                      3.169                             4.  139


Directions–(Q. 9195) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.

Q 9 K # P @ 3 E N S A C  G © U M 7 F I V % 4 Z 8 Y

91. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the seventeenth from the right end ?

1. E                                   2 P                    3. I                               4.@ 

92. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifth to the left of ‘V’ ?

1. 3                                    2. A                  3. N                             4. S

93. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the fourteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?

1 V                                    2.4                    3. %                               4. E

94. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

1. IM%                              2. CNG             3. 3#N                           4 UGC

95. How many such symbols are there in above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by an alphabet and immediately followed by a number ?

1. None                               2. One              3. Two                         4.Three

Directions (96-100): Answer the questions based on the given line graph.

Ratio of Exports to Imports (in terms of money in Rs. crores) of Two Companies Over the Years

96. In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports for Company A?

1.2                              2.3                                  3. 4                                  4.5

97. If the imports of Company A in 1997 were increased by 40 percent, what would be the ratio of exports to the increased imports?

1.      1.25                  2. 1.20                           3. 1.30                            4.None

98. If the exports of Company A in 1998 were Rs. 237 crores, what was the amount of imports in that year?


1.Rs. 189.6 crores          2. Rs. 243 crores          3. Rs. 281 crores          4. Rs. 316 crores

99. In 1995, the export of Company A was double that of Company B. If the imports of Company A during the year was Rs. 180 crores, what was the approximate amount of imports pf Company B during that year?

1.Rs. 190 crores            2. Rs. 210 crores       3. Rs. 225 crores      4. Cannot be determined


100. In which year(s) was the difference between imports and exports of Company B the maximum?

1.2000                           2.1996                       3. 1998 to 2000    4. Cannot be determined


 Answers :-

11-       ,  2-  3 ,  3- 4  , 4- 3  ,  5- 3  , 6- 3 , 7-4   , 8-3  , 9-  2 , 10-2   , 11-3   , 12- 2  , 13- 3  ,
14- 3  , 15-2 , 16-  , 17- 4   , 18-3  , 19-2  ,20- 3  , 21-2  , 22-4  , 23-2, 24-4, 25-3, 26- 4,
      27- 1,  28- 4 , 29- 3, 30- 2 , 31- 4 , 32- 2 , 33- , 34- , 35- , 36- 2 , 37- 1,38-3 , 39- 2,     
      40- 2,  41-3, 42- 1,  43- 4, 44- 4, 45- , 46- 2 , 47-3 , 48- , 49- 4 , 50- 2 , 51- 4,  52- 4 ,
      53- 1,  54- 3, 55- 1, 56- 1, 57- 4 ,58- 2 ,59- 2 , 60- 3 , 61- 3  , 62- 2 , 63- 4 , 64- 2, 65- 1 ,
      66- 2,  67- , 68- 3 , 69- 2, 70- 1, 71- 1, 72- 4, 73- 4 , 74- 3, 75- 4 , 76- 3, 77- 1,   78- 2,
      79- 2,  80- 4,  81- 3, 82- 3,  83- 4, 84- 1, 85- 1, 86- 3,  87- 3, 88- 1, 89- 4, 90- 2,  91-  4,
      92- 4, 93- 3, 94- 4, 95- 3, 96- 2, 97- 1, 98-4, 99- 2, 100- 4  

MODEL QUESTION PAPER FOR MTS EXAMINATION {CLICK HERE FOR DETAILS}

computer fundamental questions


1. Which one of the following is not an input device?
(a)Mouse
(b)Keyboard
(c)Barcode reader
(d)Monitor
Ans. Monitor

2. The full form of UPS?
(a)Uniform Power Supply
(b)Uninterruptible Power Supply
(c)Universal Power Supply
(d)Undirectional Power Supply
Ans. Uninterruptible Power Supply


3. The domain name for government institutions:
(a)org
(b)gov
(c)com
(d)firm
Ans. gov

4. Which device is used to display graphics and information on video screen?
(a)CPU
(b)Modem
(c)Scanner
(d)Monitor
Ans. Monitor

5. The programs or instructions that tells the computer what to do:
(a)Software
(b)Hardware
(c)Virus
(d)Mail merge
Ans. Software

6. Compact Disk was invented by:
(a)James T. Russel
(b)Sabir Bhatia
(c)Ray Tomilson
(d)Marcony
Ans. James T. Russel

7. A device that connects to a network without the use of a cable is said to be:
(a)Distributed
(b)Centralised
(c)Open source
(d)Wireless
Ans. Wireless

8. The main system board of a computer is called:
(a)Integrated circuit
(b)Motherboard
(c)Processor
(d)Microchip
Ans. Integrated circuit

9. A website address is a unique name that identifies a specific .........
Ans. Website

10. …………… is processed by the computer into information:
(a)Numbers
(b)Processor
(c)Input
(d)Data
Ans. Data

11. Most websites have a main page, the …………., which acts as a doorway to the rest of the website pages:
Ans. Home page

12. The diagram which represents the order of functions in a program ia called a:
Ans. Flow chart


13. The basic unit of a work sheet into which you enter data in Excel is called a:
Ans. Cell

14. Address of the first cell in the work sheet is:
Ans. A1

15. When a computer suddenly stops working, it is said to be:
Ans. Hanged

16. Paint brush belong to:
Ans. Applications

17. CPU gets the address of the next instruction to be processed from:
Ans. Program counter

18. What are the speakers attached to your computer used for:
Ans. Handling sound and music 


POSTAL / SORTING ASSISTANT MODEL QUESTIONS



1. Which state Police in India utilised the ‘Pigeon Post Service’?
Ans. Orissa State Police

2. When was the first commemorative stamp issued in India ?
Ans. In 1931 (to mark the inauguration of New Delhi)

3. The Cricketer from Australian Test Cricket team belongs to Australian Postal Service ?
Ans. Brad Hogg

4. The first Non Royal to appear on U.K. postage stamp?
Ans. William Shakespeare (1964)


5. In which language the first Megdoot Post card issued?
Ans. Tamil

6. First Postal stamp in the World?
Ans. Penny Black

7. When, the Indian Postal Stamp was cancelled at Mount Everest?
Ans. 1996 May 10 (by ITBP. Indo-Tibet Border Police)

8. Which is India’s first General Post Office?
Ans. Calcutta GPO (in 1774)

9. Which country issued the first self adhesive Postage stamp?
Ans. Sierra Leone (1964)

10. The first country issued new year greeting cards through Postal service?
Ans. China

11. When was the first Postal Stamp issued ?
Ans. 1840 May 6th

12. The first Indian Personality who was depicted in foreign stamps?
Ans. Mahatma Gandhi

13. Which picture was depicted in First world stamp?
Ans. Queen Victoria’s Head

14. The busiest Post office in India?
Ans. Mumbai GPO

15. First Indian Postage stamp?
Ans. Scinde Dawk

16. No. of post offices having ‘Pictorial Cancellation facility’ in Kerala?
Ans. 23

17. India’s third scented postal stamp?
Ans. Jasmine (Rs. 15)

18. What is water mark ?
Ans. A design / mark on paper given at the time of production.

19. The first post card issued in Cochin state?
Ans. 1898 at the time of Raja Rama Varma I

20. Which country issued the first commemorative stamp in the world?
Ans. Romania


21. Date of formation of Kerala Postal Circle?
Ans. 1961 July 1

22. Highest Denomination of Indian Commemorative stamp ever since issued?
Ans.
1) Mother Theresa , Rs. 45/-
2) Acropora Formosa , Rs. 45/-

23. First burnt-wood smelt postage stamp issued by:
Ans. Brazil (1999) in connection with hazardous effect of forest fire.

24. Where was the first Gandhi stamp printed ?
Ans. Switzerland

25. No. of world countries now in UPU (Universal Postal Union)?
Ans. 192

26. First coffee scented stamp issued by:
Ans. Brazil

27. First personality in whose name the first Commemorative stamp was issued while he was alive ?
Ans. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

28. The only country in the world where home delivery and redirection of postal articles exists:
Ans. India

29. When India Post celebrated its 150th year of existence?
Ans. 2004-2005

30. When was the first Children’s day stamp issued:
Ans. 1957 Nov. 14 (Three stamps)

31. Who cancelled the Indian Postal Stamp in space suite?
Ans. Rakesh Sharma

32. Name of the Indian Post Office at Dakshin Gangotri (Antartica)
Ans. Maitri BO

33. Which stamp is called ‘Mourning stamp of India’?
Ans. Stamp of Mahatma Gandhi issued on 15.8.1948


GK Questions for Postal Assistant Examination

1. Who is the author of ‘speed post’?
Ans. Shobha De

2. Olavanna Model refers to
(a)Women empowerment
(b)Rural sanitation
(c)Community based water supply
(d)Self employment
Ans. Community based water supply

3. Which of the following is an international project?
(a)Chombal project
(b)Kosi project
(c)Tungbhadra
(d)Nagarjuna sagar
Ans. Kosi project

4. Freon gas is used in:
(a)Air-Conditioners
(b)Television
(c)Nuclear reactors
(d)Refrigerators
Ans. Refrigerators

5. Galvanized iron is coated with a thin coating of:
Ans. Zinc

6. Sputnik was launched on
Ans. October 4, 1957

7. How many players are there in a football team ?
Ans. 11

8. Mein Kampf is the autobiography of:
Ans. Hitler

9. Which is known as Hermit Kingdom?
Ans. Korea

10. The first English school in Kerala was established at
Ans. Mattanchery

11. Law Advisor of the Central Govt. is:
Ans. Solicitor Genreral

12. Where is Visweswarayya Industrial and Technological Musium situated?
Ans. Bangalore

13. Which dance form is popularly known as ‘poetry in motion’?
Ans. Bharatanatyam

14. KLM is the airline of:
Ans. Netherlands

15. Who said ‘child is the father of man’?
Ans. Wordsworth

16. Who is the ex-officio chairman of planning commission
Ans. Prime Minister

17. Maginot Line demarcates the boundaries between
Ans. France and Germany

18. Indian currency system was converted into a decimal system from:
Ans. April 1, 1957

19. The battle of plassey was faught in the year
Ans. 1757

20. Who said ‘Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it’?
Ans. Balagangadhar Tilak

21. Ibn Batuta came to India during the period of:
Ans. Mohammed-Ibn-Tughlaq

22. Kanchi was the capital of the:
Ans. Pallavas

23. The famous ‘Gayathri Manthram’ is in the:
Ans. Rig Veda

24. The headquarters of ILO is at:
Ans. Geneva

25. The first UN Secretary General Trygve Lie from:
Ans. Norway

26. The longest night in the northern hemisphere is on:
Ans. December 22

27. Beyond Ten Thousand is a book written by:
Ans. Allen Border

28. The 73rd amendment to the constitution of India relates to:
Ans. Panchayat Raj

29. Who was the author of Aithihyamala?
Ans. Kottarathil Sankunni

30. The first woman judge of the supreme court belongs to:
Ans. Kerala

31. World Footballer of the year 2011:
Ans. Lionel Messi

32. Fresco Painting deals with:
Ans. Guptas

33. Second five year plan is based on the model of:
Ans. Mahalanobis

34. Kitab-ul-Hind written by:
Ans. Alberuni

35. The first atomic power plant in India was built at
Ans. Tarapur

36. Which of the following gases does not form part of the atmosphere?
(a)Chlorine
(b)Nitrogen
(c)Oxygen
(d)Carbon dioxide
Ans. Chlorine

37. A doctor advised a boy to wear spectacles with cylindrical lens. This is to rectify his:
(a)Short sight
(b)Long sight
(c)Cataract
(d)Astigmatism
Ans. Astigmatism

38. The first secretary of INC:
Ans. AO Hume

39. The first country to speak about Non-Alignment was
Ans. India

40. The mineral present in thyroxine is:
Ans. Potassium

41. Monozite is largely produced in the state of:
(a)Tamil Nadu
(b)Karnataka
(c)Odisha
(d)Kerala
Ans. Kerala

42. Who discovered Brazil ?
Ans. Kabral

43. Which continent is divided into almost two equal parts by the equator?
Ans. Africa

44. The language ‘Dogri’ is spoken in:
Ans. Jammu-Kashmir

45. The country in which Annie Besant was born:
Ans. Ireland

46. The Director of the Malayalam movie ‘Parinayam’?
Ans. Hariharan

47. Nehru Award is instituted for:
Ans. International understanding and peace

48. Central Food Technological Research Institute is situated in:
Ans. Mysore

49. Panini is associated with:
(a)Music
(b)Grammer
(c)Literature
(d)Dancing
Ans. Grammer

50. English East India Company set up during the period of:
Ans. Elizabath

51. Country known as Emerald Island:
Ans. Ireland

52. Shora is the parliament of:
Ans. Afganistan

53. The actress who won Urvashi Award 4 times?
Ans. Shabana Azmi

54. Rhodesia is the name of:
Ans. Zimbabwe

55. Taj Mahal is on the kanks of river:
Ans. Yamuna

56. The festival Kumbhamela is celebrated in:
Ans. Uttar Pradesh

57. Bread basket of the world is:
Ans. Prairies

58. The sun is composed mainly of:
Ans. Hydrogen

59. Ferdinand de lesseps is associated with:
Ans. Suez Canal

60. The particle which is supposed to travel faster than light:
Ans. Tachyon

61. Zulus are the tribal people of:
Ans. South Africa

62. Old name of St. Petersburg?
Ans. Leningrad

63. Mercury is a:
Ans. Metal

64. A lantern for projecting images of object is:
Ans. Epidiascope

65. Which of the following metals is not an element?
(a)Iron
(b)Silver
(c)Gold
(d)Bronze
Ans. Bronze

66. The french revolution took place in the .......... th century:
Ans. 18th century

67. In which year Azad Hind Fouj formed?
Ans. 1943

68. Where is the tomb of Kumaranasan built?
Ans. Pallana

69. The first space craft that landed on Moon:
Ans. Loona-9

70. The minister who resigned from Central Cabinet during the wake of Chinese aggression?
(a)V.C Shukla
(b)V.K Krishna Menon
(c)Jaffer sheriff
(d)H.K.L Bhagat
Ans. V.K Krishna Menon


2,000 vacant sites of the Postal Department will be developed, says Kruparani

Union Minister of State for Communication and Technology Killi Kruparani on Friday said that post offices in the country would have a new look with the use of advance technology in day-to-day operations. She said that upgradation of the post offices was being done under ‘Project Arrow’ programme. She laid foundation stone for the construction of new post office with Rs.2 crore at Amudalavalasa.

Speaking on the occasion, the minister said that 2,000 vacant sites of the postal department will be developed under the public-private- partnership mode.

Ms.Kruparani assured that Cash Transfer Scheme will also be implemented through postal department since more than five crore people were being paid their wages through post office under the MNREGA programme.

AP Chief Post Master General Viswapavan Pati said that the new building in Amudalavalasa will be constructed within one year with the availability funds allocated under 12th Five Year Plan. He hoped that it would benefit 149 branches which were covered under Amudalavalasa region. Congress MLC Peerukatla Viswaprasad, Amudalavalasa MLA Boddepalli Satyavati, DCC President Nartu Narendra Yadav and others hailed the initiaitive of the postal department saying that it was a highly respected organisation in the country. They congratulated the postal department for safeguarding valuable 1.45 acres of land from encroachment.

PCC Doctors’ Cell Convener K.Rammohana Rao, Congress leaders K.L. Prasad, Simma Rajasekhar, Mamidi Srikanth and others participated in the programme.

Efficient Computing


1. Cool re-start
Getting problems in your Windows ? The most effective remedies for PC related problems is a proper re-start.
We get many emails asking ‘how to fix this problem’ the first thing we ask is to make a proper re-start. And believe us after that We donot get email again.

So, to get solution of any PC related problem, is to make a proper re-start
2. Use Microsoft Security Essentials
There are many Antivirus programs available in the market. All the antivirus programs work properly on their level but why not use an Antivirus program created by the Developer of Windows itself ?
Microsoft Security Essentials is an antivirus program developed by creator of Windows i.e. Microsoft. This is antivirus program developed by the creators of Windows itself this mean this antivirus knows how to handle your files and especially System Files. The best part of it is that Microsoft Security Essentials is completely free and can be downloaded from Microsoft’s website.


3. Proper Disk Clean-up
- Open My Computer right click on the “C” drive, select Properties
- A new dialogue box will appear, Now select “Disk Cleanup”. Remember that for better speed it is not recommended to compress Hard Drive.
- It will take some little time for your computer to calculate disk space which CAN free, you can see an indicator.
- A mew dialogue will open, now select the files which you want to remove from computer, Leave MS Office Installation files
4. Don’t fill you Hard Drive up
Your Hard Disk might ‘bog down’ if it is over 90% full. Multiply your Total Hard Disk size by 9.
If your Hard Disk is 100 Gigabytes(GB) and the free space available with you is 9.83GB than you are very close to encounter serious performance issues.
Try to keep 10% of you Hard Disk free.

5. Remove ‘crap’ web browser’s toolbars
You might see sometimes you Internet browser gets slow down, this is just because you have installed too many unwanted toolbars in your Web Browser.
Remove unwanted, or all(recommended) toolbars from your Internet browser. This will led to increase in Browsing and Browser speed.
6. Uninstall ‘crap’ Windows program
The more software you will install in your computer the more memory will be consumed by them which will result in slow down of computer. Try to remove all unwanted software programs from your computer.

7. ‘Mind’ your downloads
If you are attracted towards a program like ‘Hack Facebook accounts from this free software’ and its even free don’t dare to download program like this. It might be a scam or a virus program. Always download programs from authenticated websites like CNET or Softopedia
8. Automatic Window update
Many exploits are discovered every month and to protect your computer from these vulnerabilities you should update your Windows. Microsoft’s programmers,after deep research generate Window update periodically Whether it is Software update or security update but you should always install that update in your computer.
Make Windows Update automatic so that you computer is automatically updated and security and performance is ensured.
9. Make Regular Backup
Your computer can crash at anytime or your Hard Disk can crash too. To prevent big data loss, you should regularly backup your computer system. There are various backup software available in the market.
10. Unless if required, don’t use Administrator account
For regular use it is suggested not use an account with Administrator privileges, because it can make a big security risk.
Make a new Limited account for regular use. Don’t run as an administrator unless necessary.

Fix missing Folder Option

If we want to see hidden files and folderswe can do so from folder option present intop of Windows Explorer. Sometimes some Malware,Trojans or Virus edit this settings and we cannot find Folder Optionin top of the Windows Explorer. This trickwill help you to Fix this Problem.
Why Virus Hide Folder Option ?
Most of the Virus files are hidden files andexecutes secretly, If someone has set the settings to Show Hidden files and folder he/she can easily see suspicious Virus files and can delete it. This is why many virus programs hide this Folder Option from Windows Explorer.

How to Get back Folder Option ?
1. Goto Start -> Run or Press Shortcut Key 
i.e WindowsKEY + R
2. Type gpedit.msc and hit enter
3. From Left Pane, Move to User Configuration > Administrative templates > Windows Component > Windows Explorer.
4. When you will select Windows Explorer, look for Removes the Folder Option menu item from the Tools menu in right panel
5. Double Click on it and Select EnableOption and Click on Apply than again Select Option Not Configure and Click on Apply and than Click on Ok.

That’s it !! After Restarting your Computer you can See Folder Option in top of the Windows Explorer.

Interest rate on General Provident Fund (GPF) during the year 2013-2014

(PUBLISHED IN PART I SECTION OF GAZETTE OF INDIA) 
F.No.5(1)-B(PD)/2013 
Government of India 
Ministry of Finance 
(Department of Economic affairs)

New Delhi, the 8th April, 2013

RESOLUTION

It is announced for general information that during the year 2013-2014, accumulations at the credit of subscribers to the General Provident Fund and other similar funds shall carry interest at the rate of 8.7% (Eight point seven per cent) per annum. This rates will be in force during the financial year beginning on 1.4.2013.

The funds concerned are :-
1. The General Provident Fund (Central Services).
2. The Contributory Provident Fund (India).
3. The All India Services Provident Fund.
4. The State Railway Provident Fund.
5. The General Provident Fund (Defence Services).
6. The Indian Ordnance Department Provident Fund.
7. The Indian Ordnance Factories Workmen’s Provident Fund.
8. The Indian Naval Dockyard Workmen’s Provident Fund.
9. The Defence Services Officers Provident Fund.
10. The Armed Forces Personnel Provident Fund.

2. Ordered that the Resolution be published in Gazette of India.

sd/- 
(Peeyush Kumar) 
Director (Budget)




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