Kavalipost

Tuesday 4 June 2013

SUBMISSION OF REPRESENTATIONS / PETITIONS OR ADVANCE COPIES OF REPRESENTATIONS TO DIRECTORATE-REG.

D.G. Posts No. 137-32/2013-SPB.II dated 29^th May, 2013.

I am directed to say that it has been observed that there has been a tendency on the part of several officials at various levels to by-pass the prescribed channels of submission of representations / petitions or to submit advance copies of representations to Secretary (Posts) / Director General (Posts) / Member (Personnel) / DDG (Personnel) / Director(Staff) requesting for promotion ,pay fixation, grant of MACP, transfer under Rule 38, posting to a particular station , expunction of adverse remarks, appointment to specific position, etc..Even in such matters, where the Circles are competent to decide the representations, the officials are sending representations/petitions or advance copy of representations to Directorate. Mere perusal and / or processing of such letter consumes significant time at different levels in the Directorate.

2. In this context, it is pointed out that Rule 115 of the P&T Manual Vol. II states that any representation, which is not an appeal should be designated as a petition. According to Rule 118-A (1) of the said Volume, any petition or copy thereof which is sent direct to the Director General or to any subordinate authority , instead of through the proper channel , will be filed , no notice of any kind being taken of it.

3. Further, the CCS(Conduct) Rules,1964 clearly provide that whenever a Government servant whishes to press a claim or seek redressal of a grievance in any matte connected with service rights or conditions, the representations should be forwarded through proper channel.

4. In spite of adequate and clear instructions regarding the manner in which the representations should be submitted by the Government servants, the representations / petitions or copies of representations are being submitted directly to higher authorities in violation of the said instructions.

5. In view of the above, the Circles are requested to bring the above position to the notice of their employees and advise them to refrain from sending advance copies of representations / petitions or copies of the representations to the authorities in the Directorate. Any such communication not received through proper channel will be filed without taking notice of it. Administrative action may also be taken against officials for violation of rules / instructions on the subject.

Sd/-

(Alka Tewari)

Assistant Director General(SPN)

Mere marriage registration does not entitle second wife for pension: CAT

“APPLICANT REGISTERED THE SECOND MARRIAGE FOR FAMILY PENSION”

The Central Administrative Tribunal, Madras Bench, has rejected a claim by a retired postman for family pension to his second wife, who was having a live-in relationship with him when his first marriage was subsisting and registered the marriage after his retirement.

Dismissing the application of M.Yesudhasan of Kanyakumari, the CAT’s member B.Venkateswara Rao said, “The applicant being a Central government employee must be aware that contracting a second marriage without dissolution of the first marriage is an offence under the Indian Penal Code. Mere registration does not entitle the second wife for family pension.”

M.Yesudhasan had married Jesintha Mary in 1981 while he was in service. Due to a strained relationship, she sought divorce before a competent court and was granted decree of divorce in 1997. The divorce was confirmed by the Madras High Court in 2000. He had a live-in relationship with Lalitha Mary since 1994 and their marriage was solemnised the same year. He retired in 2008.

In 2010, he received a communication from the Postal department rejecting his request to include her name as a nominee for family pension on the ground that the second marriage was not valid as the first marriage was subsisting. When he made a fresh request, the Postal department again rejected it. Approaching the Central Administrative Tribunal, he contended that neither there was any bar on him to get married after retirement nor any difficulty in nominating the post-retiral spouse for family pension.

The Postal department contended that his second marriage was solemnised in 1994 when the first one was subsisting, but the registration was done under the Special Marriage Act after his retirement. Therefore, it could not be termed post-retiral marriage.

Post offices set for major revamp

minister says

VISAKHAPATNAM: The Centre is focusing onmodernization of post offices in the country to improve service delivery and enable them to compete with courier companies, Union minister of state for communications and information technologyKilliKruparani said today.

The Department of Posts has sanctioned Rs 4,700 crore for modernization of 1.55 lakh post offices, she said here.

Under the project, a provision of Rs 1,500 crore has been made to install computers in rural post offices, Kruparani said.

To overcome the delay in providing services, the Union government has embarked on a massive drive to upgrade postal infrastructure, Kruparani said.

She said all the post offices in the country will be soon providing online services.

The Minister was speaking after inaugurating the first all-women post office (Mahila Dak Ghar) in Andhra Pradesh which has come up in this port city.

"In the coming days, their will be more such post offices across the country for the convenience of women. The Centre intends to open Mahila Dak Ghars in every metropolitan city and big towns, especially where there is sizeable population of working women, Kruparani said

My Own Seven Habits – The “Triumph” Formula

Stephen Covey, the author of ’Seven Habits of Highly Effective People’ is no more with us. But he will be remembered by millions for what he taught us which, according to him, ‘all that people had to do was form habits out of their best instincts.’

Pondering over the reasonably successful career that I had, rather than ‘beginning with the end in mind, I recall, beginning from the end (of my career), how I could succeed in my career by following what I would call the TRIUMPH formula, my own seven habits.

I write this article as a humble dedication to this great Management Guru – some humble thoughts from an ordinary mortal ‘to Fortune and Fame unknown.’

…………………………..

As an ordinary man,I could succeed in my career getting opportunities and challenges throughout my career and I which I readily embraced. . While looking back, I find that what helped me was the TRIUMPH formula – This word has seven letters and i would call it the seven habits, which are explained below.

Thinking

If you want to improve, you have to make thinking a habit. When you start thinking, you get several ideas, you get clarity about the subject you think about, you get a deeper understanding of the subject. I used my leisure time to think on various aspects with regard to my own improvement. Gradually, the thoughts began to appear to me every time i had time to think of, the leisure time.

Thus I could think of something while traveling in a bus on way to my office, on return from office, while sleeping and while awake during sleep due to broken or disturbed sleep. This way, some one could say that I productively used my time. Many times, when my sleep used to get cut off around 3 or 4 0′clock in the morning, thoughts used to rush to my mind. in fact, I was very particular about putting down these thoughts in writing, the moment I landed at the office – either scribbling on a piece of paper or so, sometimes dictating straightway to my P.A. The result – the bulk of my writings running over seventy pieces, turned to be nicely written articles. And no wonder, these got published in quick succession too.

I recall what Tom Peter had said in his Tom Peters Seminar. According to him, Samuel Johnson, said: ‘all intellectual improvements arise in leisure.’ another example of this, he says is that ‘when stuck, Thomas Edison would unfailingly take a nap.’ and again he says, according to a US poet laureate, ‘we don’t pay enough attention to day-dreaming, without which no bridges would soar, no light bulbs burn, and no Greek warships set upon Homer’s ‘wine-dark-sea.’ Abdul Kalam himself has advocated about the benefits of dreaming.

Reading

Reading is another way to enhance one’s knowledge as also thinking. I used to at least go through quickly the various magazines, journals, books etc. that Prof. Menon (with whom I worked for almost a decade) used to receive regularly. Again, reading books from libraries is something I cultivated as a practice. When I was in the Personnel Division of DOE, hundreds of books were available in the library and I could say I benefited a lot by reading them.Seeing my writings, Mr.Vittal, Secretary of the Department himself used to recommend to me the books that he would order for the library to read. I could read and benefit immensely through several latest management books by great writers.

Inspiration

I have derived great inspiration from Prof. M.G.K. Menon, This was indeed a rare and great opportunity, since he was involved in a wide spectrum of activities and had held multiple responsibilities. But it is necessary to have the urge to learn from great people. I used to watch carefully the way he writes, the way he makes decisions, the way he talks, the way he delivers a speech etc. in fact, I used to watch every aspect of his working. Even mere watching him this way was a great inspiration. I used to read his decisions on files and also used to try to go into the rationale for his decision.

Watching the way he communicates, through letters particularly, made me learn many things. Each aspect of a letter – the beginning, the words used, the style, the conclusion, rather a deep study of it through all of which I could imbibe some of his style which enabled me greatly to think of what way he would like a letter to be written. And by doing this, I could attempt letters he wants to write, almost the way he would himself write. This helped me a lot in terms of confidence building and also making him have confidence in me about my capabilities. He used to say, as communicated by some one else to me, that ‘ CVS knows what exactly I want.’ What a great inspiration he was for me.

Uniqueness

By uniqueness I mean cultivating some special qualities and maintaining them. It could also mean creating a niche for you, a brand for you and a demand for you through your abilities, qualities and capabilities; and a self-image through which others will perceive you. In my career I could show my talents through the opportunities I received, and others, particularly my bosses at various times associated me to work with them by a so- called image and brand I could create which transformed into a demand for my services. A major demand for my services was for working as Officer on Special Duty In the Science Advisor Council to Prime Minister, and in fact I had actually performed special duties which earned appreciation for my work from all members of the Council, including it’s Chairman, Prof. C.N.R. Rao.

Motivation

Motivation plays a very important part in an individual’ development. Normally, one does not expect any kind of motivation in Government. But in my case, throughout my 25 year career in the Government, I was fortunate to get abundant motivation, not only in my actual work, where I could excel, but also in my writings. Mr. N. Vittal was the prime motivator for whatever little I have succeeded in my writings. A few poems, a note analyzing the way Mr. Vittal functioned, a few articles on time management, personnel matters etc. were all well appreciated by him through encouraging remarks to spur my activity in this field further. I could write fifty odd articles. A compilation of all my articles on HR was liked by him and he readily gave a foreword for a book containing all those articles.

Even, after my retirement, after a lapse of over a decade, I started writing, made possible by an iPad gifted to me by my son. And again, it was Mr. Vittal, who continued his motivation for my writings, appreciating the few short pieces that I mailed to him and prodding me through his advice: ‘Dear CVS, keep writing.’ Of course, the bestmotivation is self-motivation (driven by an “I can do” attitude) which also I could practice. in fact, I am motivating myself at the age of 75 by engaging myself in thinking and writing on whatever comes to my mind.

Perseverance

You have to practice patience and perseverance. Because all efforts by you may not produce quick results as you expect. At the same time, continuous efforts with focus on your goals will certainly take you there. in my case, I persisted in my efforts to get my compilation of articles on human resources published as a book, come whatever may. And after several attempts spanning over a period of three years, my dream came true. I became the author of a book! One can recall what Confucius said: ‘our greatest glory is not in never failing, but in rising every time we fail.’ My immediate boss was thrilled and said to me: ‘I say CVS, I always knew you will be persistent.’

Humility

One should be humble always, irrespective of whatever one may have achieved. People will always respect a humble person. Mr. Narayana Murthy referred to him as an ordinary individual. Not only that, humbleness, and the associated simplicity should always be your hall mark. in my case, many of my subordinates still respect me, since I had always treated them as friends first and then their boss, allowing them freedom to indulge in jokes in the workplace. If you read together the first letters of each of the above qualities it will read TRIUMPH, and so it was.

About the author: The author of this article is Shri C.V. Subramaniam. He retired as Director in the Department of Information Technology, GOI and has held several important positions in the Government. He has published 70 plus articles in various leading news papers and has also published a book on Human Resource Management.

PA/SA EXAM COMPLETE KEY HELD ON 19/05/2013

The Postal Assistant/Sorting Assistant Examination Key is prepared by Akula. Praveen Kumar, Sub Postmaster, Papannapet SO-502303(Medak division Mob no. 9849636361, 8019549939) in good faith of Postal Assistant exam aspirants. Author of blog does not accepts any responsibility in relation to the accuracy, correctness of answers or otherwise, of the contents.

The Key Published by India Post is final.

PART-A (GENERAL KNOWLEDGE)

1. United Nation has released "one women Album on the occasion of International Women's Day. Name the Indian artist of that Album?

A. Mallika Sarabhai B. Amjed Ali Khan

C. A.R. Rahman D. Anoushka Shankar

Ans. D

2. Bula Chaudhary is related to which sport event:

A. Cricket B. Badminton C. Swimming D. Golf

Ans. C

3. How many districts of the country were initially covered under the Direct Benifit transfer scheme started from January 1,2013?

A.43 B.34 C.20 D.29

Ans. A

4. Which sport personality has won the the Indian Grand Prix 2012 at the Buddha International Circuit for the second time?

A. Mark Weber B. Lewis Hamilton C. Sebastion Vettel D. Fernando Alonso

Ans. C

5. Which among the following have been conferred with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in 2012?

A. Mary Kon and Anup Kumar B. Saina Nehwal and Sushil Kumar

C Deepika Kumari and Yuvraj Singh D. Yogeshwar Datt and Vijay Kumar

Ans. D

6. Rath Yatra- This famous festival is held in?

A. Odisha B. West Bengal C. TamilNadu D. Karnataka

Ans. A

7. In the 92nd constitutional amendment, how many languages were added to the 8th schedule of the constitution?

A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 5

Ans: A

8. Which of the following act as decomposers in an ecosystem?

A. Putrefying bacteria B. Rhizobium bacteria

C. lactobacillus bacteria D. Cyanobacteria

Ans: A

9. What is Basel III norms?

A. The Global Capital norms for banks

B. The Global Pollution Norms for Auto Manufacturer

C .The Global Norms for Cyber World

D. The Global Pollution Norms for Heavy Industries

Ans. A

10. President appoints Chief Election Commissioner & Election Commissioners. They have tenure:

A. Till age of 65 years

B. 6 years, or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

C. 5 years D. 6 years

Ans: B

11. This State contributes 70% of India's coffee and silk options Given. Which is this state?

A Rajasthan B. Punjab C. Karnataka D. Assam

Ans. C

12. Ebb & Flow is:

A. Name of a new star B. Unit of measurement of a liquid

C. A missile recently launched from Odisha

D. Gravity Mapping satellite of NASA

Ans. D

13. Who was appointed as chairman of 14th Finance Commission?

A. Sam Pitroda B. P.Chidambaram

C. Montek Singh Ahluwalia D. Dr. Y.V.Reddy

Ans. D

14. As per protocol second highest post of after President in India

A. Prime Minister B. Vice President C. Chief Justice

D. Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha

Ans. B

15. Who is the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha at Present:

A .Najma Heptulla B. Pratibha Patil

C. K. Rahman khan D. P.J. Kurien

Ans. D

16. Finance ministry has kept some services under the negative list which means:

A. Service tax would be levied @ 12% on those services

B. Service tax would be levied by State Government on services in negative list

C. Service tax would not be levied against those services

D. Service tax would be levied at highest rate on those services

Ans. C

17. What is the status of India in the world in terms of steel production?

A. 7th B. 10th C. 5th D. 6th

Ans: C

18. Which among these is a credit rating agency:

A. NSE B. BSE C. ICRA D. SEBI

Ans. C

19. Which of the following gases are given out during Photosynthesis?

A. Nitrogen B. Hydrogen C. Oxygen D. Carbondioxide

Ans. C

20. Name the king of Kannauj whose daughter Sanyogita was abducted by Prithviraj Chauhan from her Swayamvar?

A. Jayadev B. Lakshman sen C. Bhoj D. Jaychand

Ans. D

21. The thumb nail get fixed easily into the wood because:

A. more force works on less area B. less force works on more area

C. more area work on less force D. more area work on more force

Ans. A

22. The minimum number of members whose presence is essential for transacting the business of either house-Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha shall be:

A. 100members

B. 1/2 of the total number of members of the house

C.1/5 of the total number of members of the house

D.1/10 of the total number of members of the house

Ans. D

23. When the branch of a tree is shaken violently, the leaves fall. This happening can be explained by:

A. Joules 2nd law of motion B. Newton's 3rd law of motion

C. Joules ist law of motion D. Newton's 1st law of motion

Ans. D

24. When 'Sepoy Mutiny or the Great Revolt' took place, who was the Viceroy of India

A. Lord Canning B. Lord Minto C. Lord Rippen D. Lord Curzon

Ans. A

25. Which layer of the atmosphere is closest to the Earth:

A. Stratosphere B.Ionosphere C. Mesosphere D. Troposphere

Ans. D

PART-B (MATHEMATICS)

26. The sales price an article including the sales tax is Rs 1232. The rate of sales tax is 10%. If the shopkeeper has made a profit of Rs 12%, then the cost price of the article is

A. 900 B.950 C. 1000 D. 1120

Ans: C

27. A man bought some mangoes at Rs12 per dozen and bought the same number of at Rs 10 per kg. He sold these mangoes at Rs 13 per dozen and gained Rs 160.The total number of mangos bought by him are

A. 60 dozens B. 70 dozens C. 80 dozens D. 90 dozens

Ans: C

28. A dishonest dealer uses a scale of 90 cm instead of a metre scale and claims to sell at cost price. His Profit is:

A.9% B. 10% C. 10.33% D.11.11%

Ans: D

29. Sukriti and Saloni are athletes. Sukriti covers a distance of 1 km in 5 minutes and 50 seconds, while Saloni covers the same distance in 6 minutes and 4 seconds. If both of them start together and run at uniform speed, by what distance will Sukriti win a 5 km mini marathon:

A. 150 m B. 200 m C. 175 m D. 225 m

Ans: B

30. A Compact Disc Player when sold for Rs. 13,600 incurred a loss of 15%. At what price should it have been be sold to make a profit of 35% on the cost

A. Rs. 21,600 B. Rs. 20,400 C. Rs. 19,600 D. None of these

Ans: A

31. Cubic centimetres of silver is drawn into a wire 1 mm in diameter. The length of the wire in metres will be:

A. 84 B.128 C. 116 D. None of these

Ans: A

32. In 4 years Rs. 6000 amounts to Rs. 8000. In what time will Rs. 525 amount to Rs. 700 at the same rate?
A. 5 years B.3 Years c. 4 Years D. None of these

Ans: C

33. A bus left with some definite no of passengers. At first stop half the passengers left the bus and 35 boarded the bus. At the second stop 1/5th of the Passengers left and 40 boarded the bus. Then the bus moved with 80 passengers towards its destination without stopping anywhere. How many passengers were there originally?

A. 40 B. 30 C. 50 d.60

Ans: A

34. 12 men and 18 boys, working 7 ½ hours a day, can do a piece of work in 60 days. If a man works equal to 2 boys, then how many boys will be required to help 21 men to do twice the work in 50 days, working 9 hours a day?

A. 42 B. 44 C. 46 D. None of these

Ans A

35. Choose the correct statement

A. An irrational number is real number that cannot be written as simple fraction

B. A rational number is real number that cannot be written as simple fraction

C. An irrational number is real number that can be written as simple fraction

D. A rational number is real number that cannot be written as a complex fraction

Ans: A

36. The income of Ram is 20% less than Shyam. Then Shyams income is greater than Ram by

A. 20% B.25% C.30% D.15%

Ans: B

37. If the prices of oranges was less by 40%, one could buy 32 more for rs 120/-. The price presently is

A. Rs 3.00 B. Rs.2.00 C. Rs 1.50 D.Rs 2.50

Ans: D

38. A metallic cube of area 600 square centimetres is melted and cast into small steel cylinders of length 0.5 cms and radius _/ 7 (underroot) cms. How many complete cylinders can be cast?

A. 9 B. 11 C.8 d. None of these

Ans :D

39. It is 185 km from city A to city B. If a bus takes 2 hours to cover the first 85 km, how long must it take to travel the final 100 km in order to average 50 kmph for the entire trip

A. 102 minutes B. 112 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 75 minutes
Ans: A

40. In an examination a student score 1 mark for each correct answer and 0.25 marks deducted for each wrong answer. If he attempts all 120 questions and secures 90 marks. The number of questions he attempts correctly is

A. 100 B.106 C.96 D.None of these

Ans: C

41. One side of a right-angled triangle is 126 cm. The difference between the hypotenuse and the other side is 42 cm. The length of the hypotenuse is

A. 168 cm B.189 cm C. 210 cm D. None of these

Ans: C

42. I f the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and denominator is increased by 300%, the resultant fraction is 6/11. What was the original fraction?

A. 5/11 B.7/11 C.8/13 D.8/11

Ans: D

43. If 6 men can do a piece of work in 20 days and one man can do the work of two boys, then in how many days can 10 men and 5 boys do the same works:-

A. 8 days B. 10 days C. 12 days D- None of these

Ans: D

44. 12 X 16/……..

A.2/3 B. 4/3 C. 4 D. None of these

Ans:C

45. A man sold 2 watches Rs 99/- each. He gains 10% on one watch and loses 10% on another. Find his gain or loss %.

A.1%loss B.10% loss C.10% Profit D. No profit No loss

Ans: A

46. The ratio of cost price and sale price of an article is 10:11. The percentage of profit is

A. 11.5% B.10.5% C.10% D.11%

Ans: C

47. The income of A and B are in the ratio of 3:2 and their expenditures are in the ratio of 5:3. If each saves Rs 1000, the income of B is

A. Rs 6000 B. Rs 5000 C. Rs4000 D. None of these

Ans: C

48. If Rs 200 doubles in 10 years at Simple interest. What is the rate of interest

A.5% B.10% C.8% D. None of these

Ans:B

49.The average of three numbers is 77. the first number & second number is 78 and 79 respectively. find out third number?

A. 73 B.74 C.71 D.75

Ans: B

50. In a stock clearance sale Beta shoe company announces 20% discount.If the discounted price of a pair of shoes is Rs 1520/-. find its original price?

A.Rs 1800 B.1900 C.1950 D.2000

Ans: B

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PART-C (General English)

Directions: (51 to 53) Give one word for the underlined phrase

51. The small child does whatever his father was done

A. has done B. did C. Does D. had done

Ans: C

52. He is too important for tolerating for any delay

A. to tolerate B. to tolerating C. at tolerating D. with tolerating

Ans: A

53. Why did you not threw the bag away

A. did you not throw B. had you not throw

C. did you not thrown D. you did not thrown

Ans: A

Directions: (54 to57) select the word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning

54. ENORMOUS

A. Soft B. Average C.Tiny D. Weak

Ans: C

55.ARTIFICIAL

A. Red B. Natural C. Truthful D. Solid

Ans: B

56.EXPAND

A. Convert B. Condense C. Congest D. Conclude

Ans: B

57. FRAUDULENT

A. Candid B. Direct C. Fortnight D. Genuine

Ans: D

Directions: (58 to 59) Choose correctly spelt words

58.

A.	Pessenger	B.	Passenger
C.	Pasanger	D..	Pesanger

Ans: B

59. A. Benefitted B. Benifited C. Benefited D. Benefeted

Ans: C

Directions: (60 to 62) Choose Synonyms for the given words

60. Attain

A. Acquire B. Leave C. Accept D. Excuse

Ans: A

61. Verify

A. Acceptable B. Condemn C. Testify D. Praise

Ans: C

62. Immortal

A. Mortal B. Eternal C. Dead D. Eminent

Ans: C

63. Point out the verb in the following words.

A. Success B. Succeed C. Successful D. Successfully

Ans: B

64. Find out the sentence in Passive voice

A. The judge convicted the culprit for his offence

B. The culprit apologised to the judge for his offence

C. The judge scolded the culprit for his offense

D. The culprit was punished for his offence by the judge

Ans: D

65. Point out the correct sentence

A. The teacher said that the Earth moved round the sun

B. The teacher told that the Earth was moving round the sun

C. The teacher said that the Earth moves round the Sun

D. The teacher said that the Earth had moved round the sun

Ans: C

66. Mark the correct Passive form of the sentence

I play cricket with my friends

A. I play with my friends cricket

B. Cricket plays my friends with me

C. Cricket is played by me with my friends

D. Cricket was played by me with my friends

Ans: C

Directions: (67 to 68) identify the tenses in the following sentences

67. She reached the examination hall well in time

A. Present perfect B. Past indefinite C. Past Perfect D. Future indefinite

Ans: B

68. I am learning English from my Uncle

A. Past Continuous B. Present perfect C. Present Continuous D. Future indefinite

Ans: C

Directions: (69 to 71) Mark the appropriate words to fill in the blanks

69. God helps those _____help themselves

A.Who B. Which C. that D. whom

Ans: A

70. It is raining heavily, take _____umbrella

A. The B. An C. A D. Some

Ans: B

71.We have been waiting for the train___more than two hours

A. Since B. From C. Until D. For

Ans: D

Directions: (72 to 74) Identify the parts of Speech of underlined

72. Good students are always Successful in life

A. Adverb B. Noun C. Adjective D. Pronoun

Ans: C

73. The teacher was very pleased with me

A. Preposition B. Conjunction C. Pronoun D. Adverb

Ans: A

74. Cross the busy road carefully

A. Noun B. Adjective C. Verb D.Adverb

Ans: B

Directions : change the following sentence into reported Speech

75. Rahul Said “ I am busy now”

A. Rahul said that he was busy then B. Rahul said that he is busy now

C. Rahul Said that he was busy now D. Rahul said that he was busy now

Ans: B

PART-D (REASONING)

(Questions are not typed fully)

Directions (76 to 78):

In a business School four students Dinakaran, Sumit, Tarun and Amul exhibit…..

76. Who does not Play Chess

A. Dinakaran B. Amul C. Sumit D. Tarun

Ans: B

77. Who studies Psychology and Plays Billiards

A. Sumit B. Tarun C. Dinakaran D. Amul

Ans: C

78. How many games are played and subjects studied by all the four students

A. 6,3 B. 3,2 C . 5,4 D. None of these

Ans: A

79. A man stands on tower and sees two hill peaks one in the north………………

A. North West B. South West C. South D. West

Ans: D

80 Ram Starts his journey from X point. There are seven cricketers whoa re standing………

A. 21 Km B. 25Km C.29Km D. None of these

Ans: C

81. In a code CAGE is represented as 2064……………

A.18 B.19 C.21 D.24

Ans:B

82. If all the letters in English alphabet are written in reverse order…………

A.O B.M C.N D. None of these

Ans: C

Directions: Study the following arrangements ……

83. How many such symbols are there…….

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

Ans: A

Directions: In each of the following series

84. EOISMWQA?

A.VE B.ZF C.XF D.UE

Ans:D

Directions: Jumbled letters of some……………

85.AYDOT

A. A B. D C. T D.Y

Ans:D

86.ILCEOP

A. P B.O C.L D.E

Ans:D

87.If P means “+”and Q means”X”……..

A.32 B.42 C.36 D. None of these

Ans: A

88. In a certain code (i) “Count me out”…………

A.9 B.4 C.2 D.7

Ans: B

89.”Suma” is shorter than “uma”……

A.Neha B. Hema C. Uma D.Sudha

Ans: B

90. In a certain code PLATE is written

A.DDFBS B.DEBFS C.DEFBS D.DEFCBS

Ans:C

91. Q says M and T are……………..

A. Brother B. Husband C.Uncle D. None of these

Ans: D

92. In a certain code language”bring the white board”……

A.ka B.pa C.Ka or pa D.ra

Ans:C

Directions: 93 to 94: Five persons are travelling in a train……………

93. How is Babu related to Eshoo

A. Father B. Mother in Law C. Brother in law D.Father in Law

Ans: D

94. How is Amitha related to Eshoo

A.Sister B. Mother C. Mother in Law D. Niece

Ans: C

95. 3 2 3

9 2 2

2 3 2.......

A. 125 B.25 C.30 D.46

Ans:B

96. Which one number can be placed at the sign of ................

A.11 B.13 C.12 D.none of these

Ans:C

97. Which one number can be placed at the sign of ................

A.82 B.81 C.80 D.None of these

Ans:B

98.If the following series are written in reverse order.....

Ans: C

99. Find the odd one out

A. Malaria B. Plague C. Dengue D.Tetanus

Ans: D

100.ZX,XV,---,TR, RP

A.VU B. VS C.VT D. VW

14 Tips To Keep Your Mind Active:

You're working hard at a satisfying career. You're settled, more or less, in a long time relationship, and enjoy a fulfilling social life. You've established a comfortable routine with your family and friends. Life in general is going great.

Or is it? Could it be that your mind is stagnating?

The brain is an organ and, as such, it requires oxygen and exercise, just like the heart and lungs. Feed your mind and you'll feel emotionally and physically invigorated. It may be too soon to succumb to middle-aged worries about "using it or losing it," or to start fretting about Alzheimer's and other degenerative disease. Nonetheless, it's still important to focus on keeping your brain in shape.

By regularly engaging in the right activities, you can increase your memory, improve your problem-solving skills and boost your creativity. Here are some tips on how to keep your mind active.

lifelong learning

Integrating select activities into your regular schedule will pay long-term dividends.

1- Read a book

Choose from classic literature, science fiction or career-enhancing business books and give your brain a boost. Pick up a novel before your next business flight or vacation. On top of the cerebral benefits, the escapism that comes from reading can be very relaxing.

Brain benefits: Reading helps you exercise your cognitive skills and increase your vocabulary. Do it regularly and you'll be amazed at the information you absorb, which will make you a more interesting conversationalist.
2- Take a course

Learn something new. Sign up for a cooking class, register for martial arts training or enroll in a wine tasting seminar.
Brain benefits: You'll be challenging yourself to absorb new concepts, information and ideas, and you'll hone your retention skills through memorization.
3- Learn a language

Attend classes, listen to tapes or date a woman with whom you can converse in another language. Instead of watching the same television programs you always do, take in a foreign language movie with subtitles.

Brain benefits: Learning a new tongue keeps your brain flexible and your mind sharp, helping to reduce the slowing of the thought processes that comes with age. It can also make your next vacation or business trip easier if you know the language.

exercise your mind

Sometimes, physical and mental exercise go hand-in-hand.
4- Run

Lace up your running shoes and get moving. Even if you never plan to run a marathon, it will get both your body and mind in shape.

Brain benefits: Running will increase the levels of oxygen in your brain and flowing through your body. In turn, your body will release more endorphins, which will make you feel energized while producing a sense of pleasure and well-being.
5- Play golf

Escape to the links and spend a few hours in the fresh air counting birdies, bogeys and mulligans. Golf is a social sport and a great way to network and relax at the same time.

Brain benefits: Golfers get mental stimulation using their decision-making skills as they plan stroke strategies. As the sport involves the control of repetitive movements, it instills mind-body discipline.

6- Do yoga

You might be surprised at how strenuous yoga can be. Beyond the physical demands that give your entire body a workout, yoga has great calming and relaxation qualities.
Brain benefits: Yoga forces you to focus on controlling all your muscles and your breathing. You'll let your worries slide away, giving your mind a rest from stress.

7- Play pool

Rack 'em up, grab a cue and concentrate on your strategy. Billiard players must focus on the immediate, blocking out distractions as they plan their next moves.

Brain benefits: Strategic planning increases mental clarity. Concentrating on the immediate helps keep your mind sharp. Furthermore, this game of angles demands that players think in terms of physics, something most of us rarely do in our everyday lives.

keep thinking

Developing habits to fill the brief intervals in your day will also help hone your mind.

8- Play a game

Challenge a colleague to a game of chess at lunch. Invite friends over for an evening of cards. Besides the social aspects, such activities will keep your mind active.
Brain benefits: You'll use your memory and expand your powers of recall. You'll also test your mathematical skills and logic.

9- Subscribe to a daily newsletter

Whether it's a "word of the day," "quote of the day" or "this day in history" newsletter, receiving new information each day will add data to the hard drive in your head.

Brain benefits: The mental stimulation will increase your comprehension skills. The additional knowledge will also make you sound more worldly and intelligent.

be creative

Even extended leisure time needn't be downtime for your brain.

10- Grab the controller

Believe it or not, playing certain video games really can be good for your health. The operative word here, however, is "certain" -- choose games that involve strategy or problem solving. Playing Grand Theft Auto: Vice City may be stimulating, but it doesn't do much for the mind.

Brain benefits: Problem solving and role-playing games will help you practice strategic planning. You'll also improve your hand-eye coordination.

11- Build a model

Remember the fun you had as a kid making model airplanes and cars? Recreate that by building a miniature model.
Brain benefits: Following all those written instructions sharpens your powers of concentration. Focusing on the task at hand will also be very relaxing.

12- Learn an instrument

Pull out your old guitar, sign up for piano lessons or rent a trumpet or a clarinet. Learning how to make music will stimulate your creativity.
Brain benefits: Reading music provides mental stimulation. Playing an instrument requires powers of recall as well as concentration to maintain tune and tempo.

13- Do a crossword

Stick The New York Times crossword puzzle in your briefcase, then get to work on it during your commute or while you're waiting for an appointment or a meeting to begin.
Brain benefits: You'll improve your cognitive skills and creative thinking as well as your word power and vocabulary.

14- Engage in a debate

A lively discussion can be invigorating. As long as you avoid letting it digress into an argument, you can have a lot of fun debating the pros and cons of an issue with a friend or colleague.

Brain benefits: You'll practice your quick-thinking skills, logic and creativity. Developing convincing theories on the spot will help you in your career and in your personal relationships.

boost your brain

Keep your mental faculties in tip-top shape by giving yourself plenty of opportunities for mental stimulation. Use your cognitive skills, test your powers of recall, improve your memory, and challenge yourself to be more creative in your thinking. You'll reap great brain-boosting benefits by keeping your mind active.

Solved Question Paper of Civil Services Exam Prelims 2013: Paper 1

Solved Question Paper of Civil Services Prelims 2013: Paper 1

Civil Services Exam Prelims 2013 was conducted by UPSC on 26 May 2013. The exam has 2 papers Paper 1 and paper 2(CSAT). Paper-1 has 100 Questions and is objective. Here are the solved questions….will help as a model for IAS Aspirants as well!!!!

1. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sahbha?

(A) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the

recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.

(B) The Lock Sabha cannot consider the Bill further

(D) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

Ans. D

2. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States

at the same time

(B) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the state just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President

Governor from his/her post

(D) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is

appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support

Ans. C

3. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Geographical Region Feature

(A) Abyssinian Plateau : Arabia

(B) Atlas Mountains : North-Western Africa

(D) Okavango Basin : Patagonia

Ans. C

4. With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the

following statements:

1. The canves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.

2. The Barabar rock-cut caves wre originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor

Chandragupta Maurya.

3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. B

5. Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be

transferred

1. across different species of plants

2. from animals to plants

3. from microorganisms to higher organisms

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. C

6. The Chinese traveler Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded

the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of

the following statements is/are correct?

1. The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.

2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the

instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.

3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. B

7. Consider the following:

1. Star tortoise

2. Monitor lizard

3. Pygmy hog

4. Spider monkey

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2 and 3 only

Ans. A

8. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some

parts of India?

1. Arsenic

2. Sorbitol

3. Formaldehyde

4. Uranium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2, 4 and 5 only

Ans. C

9. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly

from the Provinces were

(A) directly elected by the people of those provinces

(B) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League

(D) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters

Ans. C

10. Consider the following animals

1. Sea cow

2. Sea horse

3. Sea lion

Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?

(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. B

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11. Consider the following statements:

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a

bill in the Lok

Sabha only.

2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the

Constitution, the

amendment also requires to be ratified by the Legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. D

12. Consider the following statements:

Attorney General of India can

1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha

2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha

3. speak in the Lok Sabha

4. vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3 only

Ans. C

13. With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of

the following statements is/are correct?

1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.

2. Molasses can be used as one of the feed stocks for the production of synthetic

chemical

fertilizers.

3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. C

14. Variations in the length of daytime and nighttime from season to season are

due to

(A) the earth’s rotation on its axis

(B) the earth’s revolution round the sun in an elliptical manner

(D) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis

Ans. D

15. The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers

flow to the east. Why?

1. It occupies a linear rift valley.

2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.

3. The land slopes to the west from central India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D) None

Ans. A

16. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out

of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion

(A) is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds

(B) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers

(D) exists as soil moisture

Ans. C

17. Consider the following pairs:

1. Nokrek Bio-Sphere Reserve : Garo Hills

2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail Range

3. Namdapha National Park : Deafla Hills

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) None

Ans. A

18. Consider the following:

1. Electromagnetic radiation

2. Geothermal energy

3. Gravitational force

4. Plate movements

5. Rotation of the earth

6. Revolution of the earth

Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes in the surface of the

earth?

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (B) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only

Ans. C

19. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the

Constitution?

1. National Development Council

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only

Ans. D

20. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for

(A) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third

(B) the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the

land

(D) writing off all peasant debts

Ans. A

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21. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for

implementing international treaties

(A) with the consent of all the states

(B) with the consent of the majority of States

(D) without the consent of any State

Ans. D

22. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological

succession because of

(A) insects and fungi

(B) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

23. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order

of decreasing productivity?

(A) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves

(B) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes

(D) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands

Ans. C

24. Contour bunding is a method of conservation used in

(A) desert margins, liable to strong wind action

(B) low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

25. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA)

Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

(A) To provide self-governance

(B) To recognize traditional rights

(D) To free tribal people from exploitation

Ans. C

26. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers [Recognition of Forest Rights] Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the

process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest

rights or both?

(A) State Forest Department

(B) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner

(D) Gram Sabha

Ans. D

27. Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the

production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by

normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by

(A) bacteria (B) protozoa (C) moulds (D) viruses

Ans. C

28. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been

provided in

(A) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights

(B) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy

(D) None of the above

Ans. B

29. Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their

parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?

1. Beryllium 2. Cadmium 3. Chromium 4. Heptachlor 5. Mercury 6. Lead 7. Plutonium

Select the correct answer using codes given below.

(A) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only (B) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only

Ans. B

30. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by

(A) carbon dioxide and nitrogen

(B) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

(D) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

Ans. D

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31. With reference to food chains. In ecosystems, consider the following

statements:

1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.

2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species.

3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) None

Ans. A

32. Consider the following pairs:

National Park River flowing through the Park

1. Corbett National Park : Ganga

2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas

3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 only (C) 1 and 3 (D) None

Ans. D

33. Consider the following organisms:

1. Agaricus 2. Nostoc 3. spirogyra

Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers?

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 only

Ans. C

34. Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to the soil?

1. Excretion of urea by animals

2. Burning of coal by man

3. Death of vegetation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (2) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. C

35. In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural

habitat?

1. Tamil Nadu 2. Kerala

3. Karnataka 4. Andhra Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2 only

Ans. A

36. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called

Viharas. What is the difference between the two?

(A) Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks

(B) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks

(D) There is no material difference between the two

Ans. B

37. Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in

Buddhism?

(A) The extinction of the flame of desire.

(B) The complete annihilation of self.

(D) A mental stage beyond all comprehension

Ans. A

38. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental

for the governance of the country?

(A) Fundamental Rights

(B) Fundamental Duties

(D) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

Ans. C

39. The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because

(A) Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919

(B) Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Darchy (Diarchy) in the

Provinces

(D) the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country

Ans. C

40. Quit India Movement was lunched in response to

(A) Cabinet Mission plan

(B) Cripps Proposals

(D) Wavell Plan

Ans. B

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41. The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of

(A) all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time,

normally a year

(B) goods exported from a country during a year

(D) capital movements from one country to another

Ans. A

42. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of

1. liquidity of assets

2. branch expansion

3. merger of banks

4. winding-up of banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 4 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans. D

43. An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the

(A) market rate of interest is likely to fall

(B) Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks

(D) Central Bank is following a tight money policy

Ans. D

44. In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for

(A) economic development

(B) redemption of public debt

(D) reducing the foreign debt

Ans. A

45. Which of the following characterizes/characterize the people of Indus Valley

Civilization?

1. They possessed great palaces and temples.

2. They worshipped both male and female deities.

3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only

Ans. B

46. Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to

another through tattooing?

1. Chikungunya 2. Hepatitis B 3. HIV-AIDS

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only

Ans. B

47. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?

1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.

2. Every objects, even the smallest particle has a soul.

3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only

Ans. D

48. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space

occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of

organisms?

(A) Ecotone (B) Ecological niche

Ans. B

49. Photochemical smong is a resultant of the reaction among.

(A) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(B) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

(D) high concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening

Ans. A

50. Consider the following minerals:

1. Calcium

2. Iron

3. Sodium

Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the

concentration of muscles?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. C

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51. Consider the following statements:

The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts

1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha

2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government

3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only

Ans. B

52. Consider the following Bhakti Saints :

1. Dadu Dayal 2. Guru Nanak 3. Tyagaraja

Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur look

over?

(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 only

Ans. B

53. With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds

of organism is / are known as decomposer organism / organisms?

1. Virus 2. Fungi 3. Bacteria

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only

Ans. B

54. The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions

where

(A) warm and cold atmospheric currents meet

(B) rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea

(D) continental shelf is undulating

Ans. C

55. Which of the following is / are unique characteristic / characteristics of

equatorial forests?

1. Presence of tall closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy

2. Coexistence of a large number of species

3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only

Ans. D

56. Which of the following constitute Capital Account?

1. Foreign Loans

2. Foreign Direct Investment

3. Private Remittances

4. Portfolio Investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. B

57. Consider the following historical places:

1. Ajanta Caves

2. Lepakshi Temple

3. Sanchi Stupa

Which of the above places is / are also known for mural paintings?

(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only

Ans. B

58. With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the

following statements regarding Sankhya school :

1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.

2. Sankhya holds that it is the self – knowledge the leads to liberation and not any

exterior influence

or agent.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

Ans. D

59. In the context of India, which of the following principles is / are implied

institutionally in the

parliamentary government?

1. Member of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.

2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.

3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only

Ans. A

60. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as

compared to coastal areas. What is / are the reason / reasons?

1. Thermal difference between land and water

2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans

3. Presence of strong winds in the interior

4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only

Ans. A

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61. Which of the following is / are the characteristic / characteristics of Indian

coal?

1. High ash content

2. Low sulphur content

3. Low ash fusion temperature

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only

Ans. A

62. Which of the following statements regarding Iaterite soils of India are correct?

1. They are generally red is colour.

2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.

3. They are well – developed is Rajasthan and UP.

4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. C

63. Consider the following statements :

1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.

2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.

3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 only

Ans. A

64. Consider the following crops :

1. Cotton 2. Groundnut 3. Rice 4. Wheat

Which of these are Kharif crops?

(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 only

Ans. C

65. Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic

herders.

The above statement best describes which of the following regions?

(A) African Savannah (B) Central Asian Steppe

Ans. D

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66. Consider the following statements :

1. Inflation benefits the debtors.

2. Inflation benefits the bond –

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

Ans. A

67. Disguised unemployment generally means

(A) large number of people remain unemployed

(B) alternative employment is not available

(D) productivity of workers is low

Ans. C

68. Consider the following statements :

1. The council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the

Parliament.

2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of

India.

3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for

legislation.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only

Ans. B

69. Consider the following statements :

1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.

2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution

List in the

Constitution of India.

3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of

preparation

of place for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only

Ans. B

70. Consider the following statements :

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of

that House.

2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting

right in the

presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

Ans. B

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71. With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following

statements :

1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of

the society

on the basis of equal opportunity.

2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal

programmes

and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

Ans. C

72. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the

1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky

2. lightning that separates the minbus clouds

3. violent upward movement of air and water particles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3

Ans. D

73. Consider the following pairs :

Tribe State

1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim

2. Karbi : Himachal

3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha

4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only

Ans. A

74. Consider the following liquid assets :

1. Demand deposits with the banks

2. Time deposits with the banks

3. Savings deposits with the banks

4. Currency

The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is

(A) 1 – 4 – 3 – 2 (B) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Ans. D

75. In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open Market Operations’ refers to

(A) borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI

(B) lending by commercial banks to industry and trade

(D) None of the above

Ans. C

76. Priority Sector Lending by Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to

(A) agriculture

(B) micro and small enterprises

(D) All of the above

Ans. D

77. Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water

in India?

(A) Engineering (B) Paper and pulp

Ans. D

78. To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?

(A) Promoting skill development

(B) Introducing more social security schemes

(D) Privatization of higher education

Ans. A

79. In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called

Tribhanga’ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today.

Which only of the following statements beast describes this pose?

(A) One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck

(B) Facial expressions, hand gestures and make – up are combined to symbolize certain

epic or

historic characters

(D) A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to

express the

feelings of love or eroticism

Ans. A

80. Annie Besant was

1. responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement

2. the founder of the Theosophical Society

3. once the President of the Indian National Congress

Select the correct statement, statements using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only

Ans. C

http://sapost.blogspot.in/

81. The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the

(A) imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians

(B) imposition of restriction on newspapers and magazines published in Indian

languages

trial of the Europeans

(D) removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth

Ans. C

82. A rise in general level of prices may be caused by

1. an increase in the money supply

2. a decrease in the aggregate level of output

3. an increase in the effective demand

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only

Ans. D

83. Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign –

exchange reserves?

(A) Foreign–currency assets Special drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from for countries

(B) Foreign–currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs

(D) Foreign–currency assets, holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank

Ans. B

84. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?

(A) Repayment of public debt

(B) Borrowing from the public finance a budget deficit

(D) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit

Ans. D

85. Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for

money, there will be

(A) a fall in the level of prices

(B) an increase in the rate of interest

(D) an increase in the level of income and employment

Ans. B

86. Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because

(A) exposure to sunlight is prevented

(B) concentration of carbon dioxide in the environment is increased

(D) there is an increase in humidity

Ans. C

87. Consider the following fauna of India :

1. Gharial 2. Leatherback turtle 3. Swamp deer

Which of the above is / are endangered?

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only

Ans. C

88. Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because

(A) the actual area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased

(B) the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased

(D) None of the above statements is correct

Ans. C

89. Consider the following phenomena

1. Size of the sum at dusk

2. Colure of the sun at dawn

3. Moon being visible at dawn

4. Twinkle of stars in the sky

5. Polestar being visible in the sky

Which of the above are optical illusions?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 3, 4 and 5

Ans. C

90. Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the

following physical phenomena are responsible for this?

1. Dispersion

2. Refraction

3. Internal reflection

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only

http://sapost.blogspot.in/

Ans. D

91. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because

(A) the new soil does not contain favourable minerals

(B) most of the root hairs grip the new soil to hard

(D) leaves get damaged during transplantation

Ans. C

92. Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if

(A) there is technical progress in the world economy

(B) there is population growth in X

(D) the volume of trade grows in the world economy

Ans. C

93. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.

2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.

3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only

Ans. A

94. Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to

inhibit water loss?

1. Hard and waxy leaves

2. Tiny leaves or no leaves

3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only

Ans. D

95. The known forces of natures can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity,

electromagnetism, week nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to

them, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Gravity is the strongest of the four.

(B) Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an electric charge.

(D) Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom.

Ans. A

96. The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become

frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance/importances of

discovering this particle?

1. It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.

2. It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter

from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.

3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only

Ans. A

97. Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites

because mycorrhiza enables the plants to

1. resist drought and increase absorptive area

2. tolerate extremes of pH

3. resist disease infestation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only

Ans. D

98. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?

1. The Prime Minister

2. The Chairman, Finance Commission

3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet

4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. B

99. The national income of a country in a given period is equal to the

(A) total value of goods services produced by nationals

(B) sum of total consumption investment expenditure

(D) money value of final goods services produced

Ans. A

100. Which of the following grants direct credit assistance to the households?

1. Regional Rural Banks

2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

3. Land Development Banks

Select the correct answer using codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only

Ans. C

Sunday 2 June 2013

RBI to clarify on new Bank licensing norms on June 3

KOLKATA: Reserve Bank of India said it will answer the queries on new bank licensing guidelines on June 3, leaving nearly a month for the aspirants to submit applications.

The banking regulator had issued guidelines for licensing of new private banks on February 22, 2013. It has told the interest parties to submit applications by July 1.

RBI had received several queries regarding the guidelines from the interested entities. It said it would post the clarifications on its website.

Private entities or groups, entities in public sector and non-banking financial companies are eligible to apply for banking licence.

Aditya Birla Group, Larsen & Toubro, Mahindra & Mahindra and government-owned India Post and Life Insurance Corporation of India are among the entities which are keen to apply for banking licence.

RBI said it had received a large number of queries from the aspirants seeking clarifications on the guidelines. ""The queries have since been examined and the clarifications would be posted on the RBI website on June 03, 2013,"" it said.

CAT has rejected Retired Postman's Claim for family Pension to his Second wife

Mere marriage registration does not entitle second wife for pension: CAT

Delhi High Court Decision on disclosure of information under RTI Act relating to disciplinary matters

Controller General of Defence Accounts

Ulan Batar Road, Palam, Delhi Cantt-10

No. AN/XIII/13006/Vol.XXI

Dated:- 29.05.2013

To
All Principal Controllers/PCA (FYs)
All Controllers/CFAs

Sub:- Delhi High Court's decision in - LPA NO.618/2012 dated 06.11.2012 in the matter of disclosure of information under the provisions of RTI Act, relating to disciplinary matters.

A copy of CVC letter No. CVC/RTITMisc./10/002 dated 04.04 2013 on the above subject is forwarded herewith for information, guidance and necessary action please.

2. The CPIOs/Appellate Authorities of the organization may be requested to take due cognizance of the Hon'ble High Court of Delhi Judgement, reproduced at para 2 of the above cited letter while deciding the RTI Applications and Appeals relating to disclosure of documents/information pertaining to vigilance /disciplinary proceedings (including orders of the disciplinary authority).

3. Please ack. receipt.

sd/-

(A R Sule)

CVO

CVC's Letter No. CVC/RTI/Misc/10/2002 dated 04.04.2013

CENTRAL VIGILANCE COMMISSION

Satarkta Bhawan, G.P.O.

Block A, INA, New Delhi 110023

No.CVC/RTI/Misc/10/002

Dated 04.04.2013

Sub: Delhi High Court's decision in LPA No. 618/2012 dated 06.11.2012 in the matter of disclosure of information under the provisions of RTI Act, relating to disciplinary matters.

The attention of the CVOs concerned is drawn to the Judgement/Order passed by the Hon'ble High Court of Delhi dated 06.11.2012 in LPA. No. 618/2012 in case of 'Union Public Service Commission Vs R. K. Jain, in which the issue of disclosure of information/documents under the provisions of RTI Act pertaining to vigilance/disciplinary proceedings has been considered by the Hon'ble Court.

The Hon'ble Court in its Judgement, had observed that:

"The counsel for the respondent has argued that in the case before the Supreme Court the CIC itself had denied the information while in the present case CIC itself has allowed the information. To our mind the same is irrelevant. The counsel for the respondent has next sought to take us through the reasoning given by the learned Single Judge. However, in the light of the dicta aforesaid of the Supreme Court and which if applicable to the facts of the present case is binding on this Bench, we are not required to go into the correctness or otherwise of the reasoning given by the learned Single Judge. Faced therewith the counsel for the respondent has lastly contended that the appellant UPSC in the present case is not the employer of the officer Shri G.S. Narang, information pertaining to whom was sought and the principle laid down by the Supreme Court is applicable to the employer only. We however fail to see the difference. The ratio of the dicta aforesaid of the Supreme Court is that the disciplinary orders and the documents in the course of disciplinary proceedings are personal information within the meaning of Section 8(1)(j) and the disclosure of which normally has no relationship to any public activities or public interest and disclosure of which would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of an individual. Though the appellant UPSC is not the employer of Shri G. S. Narang, information pertaining to whom is sought by the respondent, but his employer had sought the advice/opinion/recommendation of the appellant UPSC in the matter of disciplinary proceedings against the said Shri G.S. Narang and we fail to see as to how it makes difference whether the information relating to disciplinary proceedings is sought from the employer or from the consultant of the employer. What is exempt in the hands of the employer would certainly he exempt in the hands of consultant of the employer also. The advice given by the appellant UPSC would necessarily pertain to the disciplinary action against Shri G.S. Narang. Section 8(1)(j) exempts from disclosure personal information, irrespective of with whom it is possessed and from whom disclosure thereof is sought".

"The respondent at no stage set-up a case of the said personal information being required in public interest. In fact when we asked the cowisel for the respondent as to what was the public interest in which the said personal information was sought, he replied by stating that an information seeker under the Act is not required to state the reasons for seeking the information. That being the position, the need for any discussion further on the said aspect does not arise".

"We therefore, following the dicta in Girish Rarnchandra Deshpande, set aside the judgement dated 13th July, 2012 of the learned Single Judge and allow the writ petition preferred by the appellant UPSC, consequently setting aside the order dated 12th January, 2011 of the CIC".

3. The CVOs may bring the above quoted Judgement/Order of the Han'ble High Court of Delhi to the notice of the all CPIOs/Appellate Authorities of their respective organization, who may take due cognizance of the same, while deciding the RTI Applications and Appeals relating to disclosure of documents/information pertaining to vigilance/disciplinary proceedings (including Orders of the Disciplinary Authority).

4, The complete decision of Hon'ble High Court of Delhi in the aforementioned case is available on its website, www.delhihighcourt.nic.in downloadable form under the head "JUDGEMENTS".

sd/-

[Rajiv Verma]

Under Secretary & 'Nodal' CPIO

Source: www.cgda.nic.in

[http://cgda.nic.in/adm/rtiDiscp.pdf]

Deletion of questions pertaining to "Diabetes" and "Hypertension" from PLI proposal forms(L1-24) and RPLI proposal forms (PLI-01)

To view please Click Here.

Plan Training activities for GDSs under 'Human Resource Development'- Reimbursement of Travelling, Board and lodging expenses etc.

Click here to view details

ENSURING THE PROPER MAINTENANCE OF STAFF QUARTERS -INSTRUCTIONS ISSUED BY DIRECTORATE

Directorate Memo No. 18-18/2013-Bldg dated 24/5/2013

Confederation published the feedback of meeting with Secretary, Pension AR & PG on Pensionary Matters

Confederation published the feedback of meeting held on 28.5.13 with Secretary, Pension AR & PG on Pensionary Matters...

MEETING OF THE REPRESENTATIVES OF STAFF SIDE NATIONAL COUNCIL WITH SECRETARY, PENSION AR & PG ON PENSIONARY MATTERS.

CONFEDERATION OF CENTRAL GOVERNMENT

EMPLOYEES AND WORKERS.

First Floor, North Avenue Post Office Building

New Delhi. 110 001

Website: www.confederationhq. Blogspot.com.

E mail: confederation06@yahoo.co.in

Dated: 30th May, 2013.

Dear Comrade,

A meeting of the representatives of Staff Side National Council with Secretary, Pension AR & PG on pensionary matters was held on 28.5.2013. Staff Side was represented by S/ Shri S.G. Mishra and Rakhal Das Gupta (AIRF), Guman Singh (NFIR) and K.K.N.kutty and S.K.Vyas (Confederation)

Old Items

The following issues have been discussed

1. Ex-gratia Payment to SRPF / CPF beneficiaries who had voluntarily retired or medically invalidated. It has been decided to implement the Kerala High Court judgment in general and extend the benefit of exgratia payment to the meagre number of pre 1986 optees who retired voluntarily or on medical invalidation after rendering 20 years of service. The enabling orders are to be issued shortly.

2. Raising quantum of ex-gratia to CPF retirees on lines of SRPF.

In respect of SRPF retirees of the Railways, the rate of ex-gratia was raised from Rs. 600/- pm to Rs. 750/- pm to Rs. 3000pm with effect from 1.11.2006. The Govt. have now decided to revise the rate of exgratia in respect of CPF retirees at the above rates I. e. Rs. 750/- to Rs. 3000/- pm w.e.f. 1.11.2006.

3. Issue of Revised PPOs in favour of Pre 2006 retirees and others.

In the case Civilian departments about 4 lakhs of cases reported pending on 1.8.2012, now only 1.30 lakhs are pending and these would also be cleared by 30.6.2013. In the case of Railways total pendency in August 2012 was 10.8 lakhs which has been brought down to 5.54 lakhs. Now when it has been decided that revised PPOs may be issued suo mottu by the Railway authorities, the entire pending is targeted to be cleared by 30th September 2013.In the case of Defence civilians, action is being taken to issue all pending PPOs by 30.9.2013.

4. Fixation of revised pension by multiplying pre-revised 1/3rd pension (in respect of PSU absorbees) by a factor of 2.26.In the case the speaking order issued by the Govt. on 26.11.2012 that no further increase in pension of absorbee pensioners would be allowed has been challenged in CAT Hyderabad and the Tribunal has passed orders on 24.4. 2013. This order is under examination.

5. Commutation of Pension.

The Govt. have not agreed to reduce the period of 15 years to 11 years for restoration even in the cases where commutation has been paid at the rates prescribed in the New Table. The Govt. wanted that the matter may be raised before 7th pay commission.

6. Family pension to divorced / widowed / unmarried daughters –nomination for life time arrears by the family pension in respect of his / her daughter. This has not been agreed to.

7. Non payment of arrears of pension on account of Revision of pension w.e.f. 1.1.2006 in case of pensioner of Chandrapur. Now these arrears have been disbursed by all Banks.

New Items.

I. Equitable Gratuity under Rule 50 of Pension Rules, 1972.

As recommended by IV CPC the following rates of Death Gratuity had been provided for :-

Sl. No.	Length of Service	Rate of Death Gratuity
1.	Less than one year	2 times emoluments
2.	One year or more but less Then 5 years	6 times of emoluments
3.	5 Years or more but less than 20 years	12 times emoluments
4.	20 years or more	half of emoluments for every completed six monthly period of qualifying service subject to maximum of 33 times of emoluments

Staff Side suggested the following amendment in Sl. No. 3 above which may be split as under :-

a) Five years or more	12 times the emoluments but less than 11 years.
b) 11 years or more but less than 20 years	20 times of emoluments

The Govt. has not agreed and have suggested that the matter may be raised before the next Pay Commission.

II.Extension of CS (MA) Rules, 1944 to Central Government Pensioners.

The Health Ministry has agreed to extend CS (MA) Rules, 1944 to Pensioners. In many cases which had gone to Court, it has been ruled that pensioners are entitled to full reimbursement of medical expenses incurred by them as per CS (MA) Rules 1944 which are applicable in the case of serving employees. The Department of Expenditure has not agreed to implement the above decision. The pensioners have to wait till the Medical Insurance Scheme is introduced.

III. Grant of modified parity with reference to the Revised Pay Scale corresponding to pre revised Pay Scale of the post from which an employee had retired. The Govt. cited the decision of Supreme Court in K.S. Krishna Swamy Vs UOI (C.A. no.3173-3174/2006 and 3188-3190/2006). According to this the benefit of up-gradation of post subsequent to their retirement would not be admissible to pre 1996 / pre 2006 retirees.

The Staff Side pointed out that the result of this clarification is that a retiree is now being compared with the pay scale of an employee two stages lower and subordinate to the post from which an employee has retired. If V IV CPCs have consciously upgraded certain posts it is established that pay scales granted for these posts were in adequate and only therefore the up-gradation has been recommended by them. On what ground the benefit of up-gradation even in determining the modified parity be denied to them when it is established that they retired from a pay scale which were inadequate.

However Govt. did not agree to reconsider this matter.

The meeting ended with a vote of thanks.

With greetings,

Yours fraternally,

M.Krishnan

Secretary General

Additional posts to be created in various grades in the Income Tax Department - CBDT Notification

F.No.A-11013/1/2013-Ad VII

Government of India/Ministry of Finance

Department of Revenue

Central Board of Direct Taxes

New Delhi, 31st May, 2013

All the Chief Commissioners of Income-tax

All the Directors General of Income-tax

Subject : Additional Manpower for the Income Tax Department.

Sir/Madam,

I am directed to state that the Government has approved, as per decision taken In Cabinet Meeting held on 23rd May, 2013 (Minutes issued on 27th May, 2013), additional manpower for the Income Tax Department in various cadres as per Annex A of this communication. These posts are created in addition to the existing posts as per restructuring of the Department vide F.No.A-11013/3/98.Ad.VII dated 24th October, 2000 and 7051 additional posts created vide order F.No.A-11013/3/2006-Ad.VII dated 20.11,2006.

2. All the additional posts at different levels as per Annex A stand created with effect from 23rd May, 2013 (the date of the Cabinet Meeting). These posts shall be filled up in accordance with the Cabinet approval in the following manner : -

I. The 166 additional regular posts and 620 additional reserve posts at the level of Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax and 563 vacancies arising in this grade due to promotions to higher grade will be filled up equally by promotion and direct recruitment. Therefore the additional 1349 posts created at this level will be filled over a period of 5 years with 270 posts per year being filled in the next four years and 269 posts being filled In the fifth year. Every year these posts will be filled by promotion and by direct recruitment in equal proportion.

ii. The Cabinet has permitted, as a one-time measure, filling up of the additional posts that are to be filled by promotion immediately, without awaiting amendments in the recruitment rules on the basis of the model recruitment rules issued by DOPT. Accordingly, the process of filling up of all the additional posts that are to be filled by promotion shall be initiated immediately on the basis of the model recruitment rules issued by the DoPT without awaiting amendment in the recruitment rules of the relevant post(s).

iii. The Cabinet has also approved the filling up of the additional posts in the HAG+ with all the existing CCsIT being placed in the HAG+ directly and thereafter a DPC being conducted to place 26 of these CCsIT in the Apex grade. Instructions regarding promotions/placements of the officers in the posts in HAG+ and Apex scales shall be issued separately.

3. The region-wise / charge-wise distribution of the posts at various levels will be intimated separately. Revised sanctioned strength will be notified In the recruitment rules In due course.

4. This issues in pursuance to the approval of the Cabinet conveyed vide Cabinet Secretariat Note No. 20/CM/2013 (I) dated the May 27th 2013.

Yours sincerely,

(S.K.Lohani)

Joint Secretary to the Government of India

F.No.A-11013/1/2013-Ad.VII

Government of India/Ministry of Finance

Department of Revenue

Central Board of Direct Taxes

Additional posts to be created in various grades in the Income Tax Department

Annex A

SI.No.	Name of the Post	Pay Scale	Additional Posts created
1	Principal Chief Commissioner of Income Tax	Rs.80,000 (fixed)	26
2	Chief Commissioner of Income Tax	Rs. 75500-80000	91
3	Principal Commissioner of Income Tax	Rs.67000-79000	184@
4	Commissioner of Income Tax	Rs.37400-67000 + grade pay of Rs. 10000	-(96)*
5	Additional /Joint Commissioner of Income Tax	Rs.37400-67000 + grade pay of Rs. 8700/ Rs.15600-39100 + grade pay of Rs. 7600	322
6	Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax	Rs.15600-39100 + grade pay of Rs. 6600	36
7	Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax	Rs.15600-39100 + grade pay of Rs. 5400	166
8	Reserves (Group 'A')	Rs.15600-39100 + grade pay of Rs. 5400	620
9	Income Tax Officer	Rs.9300-34800 + grade pay of Rs.4800/Rs.5400	1494
10	Principal Administrative Officer	Rs.15600-39100 + grade pay of Rs. 6600	16
11	Administrative Officer Grade II	Rs.9300-34800 + grade pay of Rs. 4800	393
12	Administrative Officer Grade III	Rs.9300-34800 + grade pay of Rs. 4200	161
13	Senior Private Secretary	Rs.9300-34800 + grade pay of Rs. 4800	300
14	Private Secretary	Rs.9300-34800 + grade pay of Rs. 4200	-(72)*
14	Inspector of Income Tax	Rs.9300-34800 + grade pay of Rs. 4600	3803
15	Executive Assistants #	Rs.9300-34800 + grade pay of Rs. 4200	5932
16	TA/Steno III/Driver	Rs, 5200-20200+ grade pay Rs. 2400	2895
17	Notice server/ LDC/ Driver	Rs. 5200-20200+ grade pay of Rs. 1900	267
18	Other posts in Group C	Rs. 5200-20200+ grade pay of Rs. 1800	3773
19	Deputy Director (EDP)	Rs.15600-39100 + grade pay of Rs. 6600	42
20	Assistant Director (EDP)/Additional Assistant/Director (EDP)	Rs.15600-39100 + grade pay of Rs. 5400/ Rs.9300-34800 + grade pay of Rs.5400	8
21	DPA Grade 'B'	Rs.9300-34800 + grade pay of Rs. 4200	112
22	DPA Grade 'A'	Rs.9300-34800 + grade pay of Rs. 4200	127
23	Deputy Director (014	Rs.15600-39100 + grade pay of Rs. 6600	13
24	Assistant Director (OL)	Rs.15600-39100 + grade pay of Rs. 5400	28
25	Senior Hindi Translator	Rs.9300-34800 + grade pay of Rs. 4600	66
26	Junior Hindi Translator	Rs.9300-34800 + grade pay of Rs. 4200	44

@ 116 existing posts of CC1T in HAG will also be redesignated as Principal CIT. The total posts of Principal CIT will therefore be 300.

* These posts stand abolished.

# The post comprises the existing grades of Senior Tax Assistant, Office Superintendent, Stenographer Grade I and DEO which stand merged.

Co-operative Society, Nellore

Conducting Various Games to its Members

02.06.2013 - Sunday - Cricket

Morning 8 AM

Nellore Postal Team Vs Nellore RMS Team

Afternoon 2 PM

Gudur Postal Team Vs Kavali Postal Team

@ Stadium ground, opposite District Govt. Hospital, Nellore

EDITORIAL POSTAL CRUSADER-JUNE-2013

GDS – CONFRONTATION INEVITABLE

Even after 65 years of independence, “ED System”, one of the legacies of the British Raj, with three lakhs work force is being continued, carried forward, and entrenched as the system of cheap labour and exploitation by the Government of India in the Department of Posts.

The Extraneous Departmental Agents which was the nomenclature of the GDS during the British regime and equated with the Government employees became the "extras" of the Department after independence. Justice Talwar declared that they are holders of Civil Posts as per the Supreme Court Judgment and should be called as Grameen Dak Karmachari with departmental status. But the Government of India has chosen the nomenclature as Grameen Daks Sevaks not as Karmachari and not accorded the civil servant status for all purposes.

The GDS Rules were subsequently amended in 2001 and 2011 and made the GDS as holder of Civil Post "outside the civil service" categorically with the fixed definition that they should not be equated with the regular Government servants and applied only to the Disciplinary rules which is also not a statutory one. They have been denied the prorate wages at par with the Departmental employees. The pay has been termed as Time Related Continuity Allowance (TRCA). All the positive recommendations of Justice Talwar Committee were buried and cemented after the implementation of Natarajamuthy Committee. Even the pro rata to the minimum of the Government scale has not been ensured to the existing GDS and there is a heavy loss to all the GDS after the implementation of his report.

The GDS is now equated with the part time workers like Anganwadi workers. Their status has been lowered. The rules were modified to deny everything to this exploited category further. The protection of TRCA which was in existence since 1970s was taken back. The recruitment rules for postmen and MTS were amended deleting the provisions of seniority selection among GDS and introduction of open market recruitment. The combination of duty is the order of the day. The conditions put forth for filling up the vacant GDS posts will never allow to fill up the posts regularly. The medical benefits have not been implemented.

The Bonus which was granted at par with Departmental employees was snatched away and files were constructed in such way to deny all the benefits to GDS permanently. There is a clear discrimination between the regular and GDS officials and they lost many things. Protection of pay granted in 1986 was frozen. Now after one year there is no protection and the reduction will take place. Bonus ceiling reduced to Rs.2500 from Rs.3500. The GDS workload norms were tightened. The vacant GDS posts have not been filled up. The indiscriminate combination of duties is the order of the day and there is no pro-rata wages to GDS as per the Sixth CPC. The 100% promotional avenues enshrined for the GDS in MTS and Postmen recruitment rules were modified and open market recruitment is resorted to. The relaxation of standard in the question papers has been withdrawn and now tightened with the pattern of CBSE Xth standard resulting many vacancies were not filled up and will go to the open market, thus the GDS will be deprived of fair chances.

The economic development during the six decades as a whole in the nation in general and in the villages in particular has brought several modern changes in the livelihood of the common man in the country. His needs and wants have been upgraded. The Department of Posts is considered as the most useful vehicle to reach out to all those common men in the country for delivering the packages of different Ministries, departments of Government and for State Governments.

The most important products of Postal Life Insurance and Rural Postal Life Insurance are getting introduced to the general public through these Grameen Dak Sewaks and these sections of the Postal Workers are the mainstay in the business development of these products in the present competitive insurance sector. There are multifarious products and works that are being carried out by these Grameen Dak Sewaks and it is beyond doubt that the scope of business among the crores of rural population wholly dependent on these segments of Postal Workers. Such a vital section of Postal Employees is being treated as non-regular Government Employees by the Government is nothing but naked exploitation for the purpose of denying legitimate dues to them.

This NFPE appeals the Government to implement the Justice Talwar Committee recommendations at least on civil servant status to the GDS as it is categorical in its recommendations that ED Employees are to be treated as Civil Servants for all purposes and that all perks, privileges and benefits are to be extended as like the other regular Government Employees.

The NFPE calls upon the Government of India to change its mind-set on the system of ED employees or Grameen Dak Sewaks from that of non-regular exploitative cheap labour system into the system of regular departmental employees and that a methodology should be construed to departmentalize all the existing GDS within a time frame.

The NFPE also notes with concern that the stand taken by the Postal bureaucracy in the aftermath of formation of 6th CPC to deny stoutly either to remit the consideration of pay revision of three lakhs of GDS to the 6th CPC or to constitute a Pay Body headed by a Justice as like Justice Talwar had led to the formation of a retired officer headed committee called the Nataraja Murthy Committee that loaded its recommendations with a lot of anti-GDS character to snatch away several existing benefits like pro-rata wages on par with comparable departmental cadres as well as the parity in bonus ceiling quantum etc.

This NFPE urge upon the Government that as observed by the 4th CPC it is the prerogative of the Pay Commissions to go into the issues of GDS also instead of forming any separate committees for these category of employees in the Department of Posts and hence the pay revision issue of three lakhs of GDS shall be remitted to the 7th CPC on its formation.

Notwithstanding such a revision of wages for the GDS through the 7th CPC, NFPE resolves to urge upon the Government to modify its retrograde stand of rejecting parity on bonus ceiling to GDS with all other sections of workers and employees under the Bonus Act and reducing the bonus ceiling from 3500/- to 2500/- in an arbitrary way based on the reactionary recommendation of the Nataraja Murthy Committee and come forward to remove this discrimination immediately.

NFPE urge upon the Government to direct the Authorities of Department of Posts to have a thorough discussion with the Federations and GDS Unions on all other issues of GDS and in particular the 32 charter of demands formulated by the AIPEU GDS (NFPE), the associated member of the NFPE including the time factor, the changing of Recruitment Rules of Postman and MTS that contains clauses against the interests of GDS as well as modifying the Conduct and Disciplinary Rules on par with the regular employees in every respect.

National Federation of Postal Employees also resolves to launch a powerful movement and consistent struggle along with the affiliated unions of the National Federation of Postal Employees for the settlement of all justified demands of three lakhs of GDS if the Department of Posts and the Government of India fail to redress the basic issues of this section of employees within a justified time frame.

NFPE Further like to make clear that in case the Government continuous its negative attitude towards GDS and refuse to include GDS under the purview of the 7^th CPC the entirety of the Postal and RMS employees including GDS shall go on indefinite strike till the realization of the demands. NFPE calls upon the postal and RMS employees including GDS to be ready for such an action if situation warrants.

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Tuesday 4 June 2013

SUBMISSION OF REPRESENTATIONS / PETITIONS OR ADVANCE COPIES OF REPRESENTATIONS TO DIRECTORATE-REG.

D.G. Posts No. 137-32/2013-SPB.II dated 29^th May, 2013.

Mere marriage registration does not entitle second wife for pension: CAT

“APPLICANT REGISTERED THE SECOND MARRIAGE FOR FAMILY PENSION”

Post offices set for major revamp

minister says

My Own Seven Habits – The “Triumph” Formula

Thinking

Reading

Inspiration

Uniqueness

Motivation

Perseverance

Humility

PA/SA EXAM COMPLETE KEY HELD ON 19/05/2013

A. 8 days B. 10 days C. 12 days D- None of these

48. If Rs 200 doubles in 10 years at Simple interest. What is the rate of interest

A.5% B.10% C.8% D. None of these

49.The average of three numbers is 77. the first number & second number is 78 and 79 respectively. find out third number?

14 Tips To Keep Your Mind Active:

Solved Question Paper of Civil Services Exam Prelims 2013: Paper 1

Sunday 2 June 2013

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CAT has rejected Retired Postman's Claim for family Pension to his Second wife

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Deletion of questions pertaining to "Diabetes" and "Hypertension" from PLI proposal forms(L1-24) and RPLI proposal forms (PLI-01)

Plan Training activities for GDSs under 'Human Resource Development'- Reimbursement of Travelling, Board and lodging expenses etc.

ENSURING THE PROPER MAINTENANCE OF STAFF QUARTERS -INSTRUCTIONS ISSUED BY DIRECTORATE

Confederation published the feedback of meeting with Secretary, Pension AR & PG on Pensionary Matters

Additional posts to be created in various grades in the Income Tax Department - CBDT Notification

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KAVALIPOST

Tuesday 4 June 2013

SUBMISSION OF REPRESENTATIONS / PETITIONS OR ADVANCE COPIES OF REPRESENTATIONS TO DIRECTORATE-REG.

D.G. Posts No. 137-32/2013-SPB.II dated 29th May, 2013.

Mere marriage registration does not entitle second wife for pension: CAT

“APPLICANT REGISTERED THE SECOND MARRIAGE FOR FAMILY PENSION”

Post offices set for major revamp

minister says

My Own Seven Habits – The “Triumph” Formula

Thinking

Reading

Inspiration

Uniqueness

Motivation

Perseverance

Humility

PA/SA EXAM COMPLETE KEY HELD ON 19/05/2013

A. 8 days B. 10 days C. 12 days D- None of these

48. If Rs 200 doubles in 10 years at Simple interest. What is the rate of interest

A.5% B.10% C.8% D. None of these

49.The average of three numbers is 77. the first number & second number is 78 and 79 respectively. find out third number?

14 Tips To Keep Your Mind Active:

Solved Question Paper of Civil Services Exam Prelims 2013: Paper 1

Sunday 2 June 2013

RBI to clarify on new Bank licensing norms on June 3

CAT has rejected Retired Postman's Claim for family Pension to his Second wife

Delhi High Court Decision on disclosure of information under RTI Act relating to disciplinary matters

Deletion of questions pertaining to "Diabetes" and "Hypertension" from PLI proposal forms(L1-24) and RPLI proposal forms (PLI-01)

Plan Training activities for GDSs under 'Human Resource Development'- Reimbursement of Travelling, Board and lodging expenses etc.

ENSURING THE PROPER MAINTENANCE OF STAFF QUARTERS -INSTRUCTIONS ISSUED BY DIRECTORATE

Confederation published the feedback of meeting with Secretary, Pension AR & PG on Pensionary Matters

Additional posts to be created in various grades in the Income Tax Department - CBDT Notification

D.G. Posts No. 137-32/2013-SPB.II dated 29^th May, 2013.